Nursing Elites

1. What is a surgical procedure to remove one of the lobes of the lungs, often performed to treat lung cancer?

• A. Lobectomy
• B. Pneumonectomy
• C. Thoracotomy
• D. Tracheostomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lobectomy is the correct answer. This surgical procedure involves removing one of the lobes of the lungs, commonly done to treat lung cancer or other serious lung ailments. Choice B, pneumonectomy, involves the complete removal of a lung, not just a lobe. Choice C, thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specific to removing a lung lobe. Choice D, tracheostomy, is the creation of an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing and is unrelated to lung lobe removal.

2. Which of the following is a central vasoconstrictor and peripheral vasodilator?

• A. Parasympathetic nervous system
• B. Sympathetic nervous system
• C. Dopamine
• D. Epinephrine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Epinephrine. Epinephrine acts as a central vasoconstrictor and peripheral vasodilator. It increases heart rate and blood flow to muscles, helping to prepare the body for a 'fight or flight' response. Parasympathetic nervous system (choice A) does not cause vasoconstriction but rather vasodilation. The sympathetic nervous system (choice B) is primarily responsible for the fight or flight response, causing vasoconstriction. Dopamine (choice C) primarily acts as a neurotransmitter and hormone, not directly causing central vasoconstriction and peripheral vasodilation.

3. What is a condition characterized by episodes of severe, acute shortness of breath, often occurring at night?

• A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
• B. Sleep apnea
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by sudden episodes of severe shortness of breath during sleep, often waking the individual. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but does not usually present with acute shortness of breath. Choice C, Orthopnea, refers to shortness of breath that occurs when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficult or labored breathing and does not specifically describe acute episodes at night.

4. The client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• B. Reassure the client that this is a common side effect.
• C. Instruct the client to monitor their symptoms at home.
• D. Suggest the client reduce physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on amiodarone reports shortness of breath, it can be indicative of pulmonary toxicity, a severe side effect associated with this medication. The nurse's priority is to notify the healthcare provider immediately to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Choice B is incorrect because shortness of breath with amiodarone should not be dismissed as a common side effect. Instructing the client to monitor symptoms at home (Choice C) may delay necessary intervention. Suggesting the client reduce physical activity (Choice D) does not address the potential serious nature of the symptom and the need for prompt evaluation.

5. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

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