ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. What is a surgical procedure to remove one of the lobes of the lungs, often performed to treat lung cancer?
- A. Lobectomy
- B. Pneumonectomy
- C. Thoracotomy
- D. Tracheostomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A lobectomy is the correct answer. This surgical procedure involves removing one of the lobes of the lungs, commonly done to treat lung cancer or other serious lung ailments. Choice B, pneumonectomy, involves the complete removal of a lung, not just a lobe. Choice C, thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specific to removing a lung lobe. Choice D, tracheostomy, is the creation of an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing and is unrelated to lung lobe removal.
2. What condition is characterized by the inflammation of the heart's outer lining, often causing chest pain and other symptoms?
- A. Pericarditis
- B. Endocarditis
- C. Myocarditis
- D. Valvular heart disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pericarditis is the correct answer because it is the inflammation of the pericardium, the outer lining of the heart. This condition commonly presents with symptoms like chest pain. Endocarditis (choice B) is the inflammation of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Myocarditis (choice C) is the inflammation of the heart muscle itself. Valvular heart disease (choice D) refers to various conditions affecting the heart valves, not specifically the outer lining of the heart.
3. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.
4. The client on spironolactone should avoid which of the following?
- A. Foods high in potassium
- B. Foods high in sodium
- C. Foods high in calcium
- D. Foods high in chloride
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Foods high in potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Consuming foods high in potassium while on spironolactone can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly interact with sodium, calcium, or chloride in a way that would require specific dietary restrictions related to these minerals.
5. What is a type of heart disease that involves the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, reducing its ability to pump blood?
- A. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- B. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Arrhythmia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a type of heart disease characterized by the thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, leading to a reduced ability to pump blood. This condition is different from dilated cardiomyopathy (choice B), which involves the enlargement and weakening of the heart chambers. Restrictive cardiomyopathy (choice C) is characterized by the stiffening of the heart muscle, affecting its ability to fill with blood properly. Arrhythmia (choice D) refers to abnormal heart rhythms and is not specifically related to thickening or stiffening of the heart muscle, as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
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