the client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 9060 mm hg what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

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Cardiovascular System Exam Questions Pdf

1. A client on a beta blocker has a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to hold the beta blocker and notify the healthcare provider. A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is already low, and beta blockers can further decrease blood pressure. Administering the beta blocker can potentially worsen the situation, leading to complications. Administering a diuretic or continuing to monitor the client without taking immediate action could delay necessary intervention. Therefore, holding the beta blocker and involving the healthcare provider promptly is crucial in this scenario.

2. The client is on digoxin and has severe digoxin toxicity. What is the nursing priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to give Digibind as an antidote in cases of severe digoxin toxicity. Digibind works by binding to digoxin and preventing it from causing further harm. Checking the potassium level (choice A) is important but not the priority when the client has severe toxicity. Changing the dosing to every other day (choice C) is not appropriate in the setting of severe toxicity where immediate action is required. Giving a potassium supplement (choice D) may be needed eventually, but the priority is to administer Digibind to counteract the toxic effects of digoxin.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with atrial fibrillation on dabigatran (Pradaxa). What is the most important instruction to give to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction to give to a client on dabigatran (Pradaxa) is not to miss a dose and take it at the same time each day. This is crucial for maintaining the anticoagulant effect of the medication. Choice A is not necessary as dabigatran does not need to be taken with food. Choice C is important but not as crucial as ensuring proper dosing. Choice D is also important but falls behind in priority compared to maintaining consistent dosing.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer heparin to a client. What lab value should be monitored?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct lab value that should be monitored when administering heparin is the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and aPTT is a sensitive measure to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Monitoring aPTT helps in adjusting the heparin dose to maintain the desired anticoagulant effect. PT/INR is more specific to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count and hemoglobin levels are important parameters to assess bleeding tendencies and oxygen-carrying capacity but are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.

5. What is a condition where the heart's mitral valve does not close properly, causing blood to leak backward into the left atrium?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer. It occurs when the mitral valve does not close properly, leading to blood leaking backward into the left atrium. This condition can manifest with symptoms such as palpitations and chest pain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because aortic stenosis involves narrowing of the aortic valve, mitral stenosis is the narrowing of the mitral valve, and tricuspid regurgitation is when blood leaks backward through the tricuspid valve.

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