Nursing Elites

1. What type of stroke is caused by a blockage in an artery supplying blood to the brain?

• A. Ischemic stroke
• B. Hemorrhagic stroke
• C. Transient ischemic attack
• D. Embolism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ischemic stroke. Ischemic stroke occurs when a blood clot blocks an artery supplying blood to the brain, leading to brain damage. Choice B, Hemorrhagic stroke, is caused by bleeding in the brain, not a blockage. Choice C, Transient ischemic attack, is a temporary blockage of blood flow to the brain with symptoms similar to a stroke but typically lasting only a few minutes. Choice D, Embolism, refers to a blood clot or other particle that travels through the bloodstream and blocks a blood vessel.

2. What is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe to assist with breathing?

• A. Tracheostomy
• B. Lobectomy
• C. Thoracotomy
• D. Pleurodesis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tracheostomy is the correct answer. It is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe (trachea) to assist with breathing. This procedure is commonly used for patients who require long-term ventilation support. Choice B, Lobectomy, involves the removal of a lobe of the lung and is not related to creating an opening in the windpipe. Choice C, Thoracotomy, is a surgical incision into the chest wall and is not specifically related to creating an opening in the windpipe. Choice D, Pleurodesis, is a procedure to treat recurrent pleural effusions by causing the pleural layers to stick together, and it is not related to creating an opening in the windpipe.

3. What is the average cardiac output?

• A. Approximately 4 to 6 L per minute
• B. Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute
• C. Approximately 5 to 8 L per minute
• D. Approximately 3 to 7 L per minute

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Approximately 4 to 8 L per minute. Cardiac output is defined as the volume of blood the heart pumps per minute, typically ranging between 4 to 8 liters. Choices A, C, and D provide ranges that are either too narrow or outside the standard average values for cardiac output, making them incorrect.

4. The client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• B. Continue the medication and monitor lung function.
• C. Discontinue the medication and start oxygen therapy.
• D. Reduce the dose and monitor respiratory status.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client on amiodarone develops pulmonary fibrosis, a serious side effect, the immediate action the nurse should take is to notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial because pulmonary fibrosis can lead to severe respiratory compromise and requires prompt evaluation and management by the healthcare provider. Continuing the medication (choice B) can worsen the condition, and delaying action by reducing the dose and monitoring respiratory status (choice D) may not be appropriate given the seriousness of pulmonary fibrosis. Discontinuing the medication and starting oxygen therapy (choice C) may be necessary, but the priority is to notify the healthcare provider first for further assessment and guidance.

5. The nurse is caring for a client on enalapril (Vasotec). What is the most important side effect to monitor?

• A. Cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and cough is a common side effect associated with this class of medication. Monitoring for cough is crucial as it can indicate the development of a potentially serious condition known as angioedema. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors but is not the most important side effect to monitor. Hypotension (choice C) and dizziness (choice D) are also potential side effects of enalapril; however, cough takes precedence due to its association with angioedema, a severe adverse reaction.

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