the client on warfarin has an inr of 55 what is the priority nursing action
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Cardiovascular System Exam Questions

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

2. The nurse is caring for a client on heparin. What is the most important lab value to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: aPTT. When a client is on heparin therapy, monitoring the aPTT is crucial. The aPTT helps assess the effectiveness of heparin in preventing blood clots and guides dose adjustments as needed. INR (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) is important to assess for potential bleeding disorders or thrombocytopenia but is not the primary lab value to monitor for heparin therapy. Hemoglobin (Choice D) is essential for assessing oxygen-carrying capacity but is not the most important lab value to monitor when a client is on heparin.

3. What is the condition where the lungs become filled with fluid, often due to heart failure, making it difficult to breathe?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pulmonary edema is the correct answer. It occurs when fluid fills the lungs, usually due to heart failure, leading to breathing difficulties. Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid around the lungs, not inside. Pulmonary hypertension is high blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs, and pneumothorax is the presence of air between the lung and chest wall.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client on an ACE inhibitor. What lab value is most important to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. When a client is on an ACE inhibitor, it is crucial to monitor potassium levels because ACE inhibitors can lead to an increase in potassium, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B) is not as critical in this scenario. Creatinine levels (Choice C) are important for assessing kidney function but are not the most crucial lab value to monitor with ACE inhibitors. Calcium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by ACE inhibitors and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

5. Which term conceptualizes that the greater the myocardial fiber stretch, within physiologic limits, the more forceful the ventricular contraction, thereby increasing stroke volume?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Frank-Starling’s Law. This law explains that within physiologic limits, the greater the stretch of myocardial fibers, the more forceful the ventricular contraction, leading to an increased stroke volume. Choice B, Automaticity, refers to the ability of cardiac cells to spontaneously generate electrical impulses. Choice C, Contractility, represents the intrinsic ability of the heart muscle to contract. Choice D, Excitability, refers to the ability of cardiac cells to respond to electrical stimuli.

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