ATI RN
Cardiovascular System Exam Questions
1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?
- A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
- B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
- C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
- D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.
2. The client on enoxaparin (Lovenox) is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Administer the enoxaparin as scheduled.
- C. Administer vitamin K before the surgery.
- D. Monitor the client’s INR and proceed with surgery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hold the enoxaparin and notify the healthcare provider. Enoxaparin, being an anticoagulant, should be held before surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding during the procedure. It is crucial to inform the healthcare provider to determine the appropriate management plan. Choice B is incorrect because administering enoxaparin before surgery can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as vitamin K administration is not typically indicated in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring the client's INR and proceeding with surgery without addressing the enoxaparin can lead to significant bleeding complications.
3. Which term refers to the contraction phase of the heart when blood is ejected from the chambers?
- A. Systole
- B. Diastole
- C. Contractility
- D. Afterload
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, systole. Systole is the phase of the cardiac cycle when the heart contracts and pumps blood out of the chambers. During diastole (choice B), the heart relaxes and fills with blood, contrasting with systole. Contractility (choice C) refers to the ability of the heart to contract effectively. Afterload (choice D) is the pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole.
4. Which medication is used to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes?
- A. ACE inhibitor
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Diuretic
- D. Calcium channel blocker
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is an ACE inhibitor. ACE inhibitors are medications specifically designed to lower high blood pressure and reduce the risk of heart attacks, strokes, and other cardiovascular events. Beta-blockers, diuretics, and calcium channel blockers are also used to treat high blood pressure, but ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in reducing the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
5. Which condition involves the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, leading to reduced pumping ability?
- A. Dilated cardiomyopathy
- B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
- C. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
- D. Pericarditis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dilated cardiomyopathy. Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by the enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle of the heart, which results in a reduced ability to pump blood effectively. Choice B, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, involves thickening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice C, Restrictive cardiomyopathy, is characterized by stiffening of the heart muscle, not enlargement. Choice D, Pericarditis, refers to inflammation of the pericardium, the lining surrounding the heart, and does not involve enlargement and weakening of the left ventricle.
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