Nursing Elites

1. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

2. What is a condition where the heart muscle is weakened and unable to pump blood effectively, often leading to heart failure?

• A. Cardiomyopathy
• B. Myocarditis
• C. Endocarditis
• D. Pericarditis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cardiomyopathy is the correct answer. In cardiomyopathy, the heart muscle becomes weak and cannot pump blood effectively, which can lead to heart failure. Myocarditis (choice B) is inflammation of the heart muscle, not specifically causing muscle weakness. Endocarditis (choice C) is an infection of the inner lining of the heart chambers and valves. Pericarditis (choice D) is inflammation of the pericardium, the outer lining of the heart.

3. When administering an ACE inhibitor to a client with heart failure, what is the expected outcome of this medication?

• A. Decreased blood pressure
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Increased cardiac output
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased cardiac output. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in heart failure to reduce the workload on the heart by decreasing blood pressure and increasing cardiac output. This ultimately helps improve the heart's efficiency and function. Choice A is incorrect because ACE inhibitors generally lead to a reduction in blood pressure. Choice B is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not increase heart rate. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do not typically decrease heart rate in the context of heart failure.

4. The client is on a nitrate for angina. What is the most common side effect the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Headache
• B. Flushing
• C. Dizziness
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Headache. Nitrates commonly cause headaches as a side effect due to vasodilation. Flushing, dizziness, and nausea are less common side effects associated with nitrates. Flushing is more related to the dilation of blood vessels closer to the skin's surface, dizziness could occur but is not as common as headaches, and nausea is a less typical side effect of nitrates.

5. Which order should the nurse question?

• A. The addition of a loop diuretic with digoxin.
• B. The addition of a beta blocker with digoxin.
• C. A digoxin dose of 0.125 mg per day.
• D. The addition of an ACE inhibitor with digoxin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because adding a beta blocker to digoxin can potentiate the bradycardic effect of digoxin, leading to serious complications such as heart block. This combination requires caution as it can significantly slow down the heart rate. Choices A, C, and D are not the best options to question in this scenario. Loop diuretics are commonly used with digoxin, a digoxin dose of 0.125 mg per day is within the typical range, and ACE inhibitors are often prescribed alongside digoxin for managing heart conditions.

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