Nursing Elites

1. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

2. Which surgical procedure involves removing a portion of the lung?

• A. Lobectomy
• B. Pneumonectomy
• C. Tracheostomy
• D. Bronchoscopy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A lobectomy is the surgical removal of a lobe of the lung. This procedure is commonly performed to treat conditions like lung cancer or severe lung diseases. Pneumonectomy involves removing an entire lung, making it incorrect. Tracheostomy is a surgical procedure to create an opening in the windpipe, not involving lung tissue removal. Bronchoscopy is a diagnostic procedure that allows visualization of the airways using a thin, flexible tube with a camera, not involving lung tissue removal.

3. What is the condition where the lung collapses due to air leaking into the space between the lung and chest wall?

• A. Pneumothorax
• B. Pleural effusion
• C. Pulmonary fibrosis
• D. Lung cancer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pneumothorax is the correct answer. It is the collapse of a lung due to air leaking into the space between the lung and chest wall. This condition often requires emergency treatment. Choice B, Pleural effusion, is the buildup of excess fluid between the layers of the pleura outside the lung, not air. Choice C, Pulmonary fibrosis, is a lung disease characterized by scarring and thickening of lung tissue, not related to lung collapse. Choice D, Lung cancer, is the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lung, not directly causing lung collapse.

4. The client on warfarin has an INR of 5.5. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer vitamin K as an antidote.
• B. Hold the next dose of warfarin.
• C. Increase the dose of warfarin.
• D. Administer fresh frozen plasma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 5.5 is significantly elevated, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. The priority nursing action in this situation is to administer vitamin K as an antidote to reverse the effects of warfarin and lower the INR. Holding the next dose of warfarin (choice B) is important but not as immediate as administering vitamin K. Increasing the dose of warfarin (choice C) would further elevate the INR, worsening the bleeding risk. Administering fresh frozen plasma (choice D) is not the first-line treatment for high INR due to warfarin.

5. The client on furosemide is at risk for which electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance is a significant risk associated with the use of diuretics. Choice B, Hypernatremia, is incorrect as furosemide is not known to cause high sodium levels. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is also incorrect as furosemide tends to cause potassium depletion rather than excess. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is not directly related to furosemide use.

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