the client on clopidogrel plavix should be monitored for which adverse effect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Physical Exam Cardiovascular System

1. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

2. The client on spironolactone (Aldactone) has a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: With a potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L, which is high, the priority action for the nurse is to hold the spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can further increase potassium levels. Therefore, it is crucial to prevent exacerbating hyperkalemia by discontinuing the medication. Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary for further guidance and potential adjustments to the treatment plan. Administering a potassium supplement (Choice B) would be contraindicated since the client already has elevated potassium levels. Continuing the spironolactone as ordered (Choice C) can worsen hyperkalemia. Increasing the dose of spironolactone (Choice D) would be unsafe and exacerbate the high potassium levels.

3. Which surgical procedure involves opening or replacing a narrowed or blocked heart valve?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valve replacement is the correct answer because it specifically involves surgically replacing a damaged or diseased heart valve with a prosthetic valve to address narrowing or blockage, thereby improving blood flow and heart function. Angioplasty (choice B) is a procedure to widen narrowed or obstructed arteries, typically using a balloon catheter. Stent placement (choice C) involves inserting a mesh tube to support a weakened artery. Coronary bypass surgery (choice D) is a procedure to create new routes for blood flow to the heart muscle by bypassing blocked arteries.

4. Which condition is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath, often occurring at night and associated with heart failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is the correct answer. It is characterized by the sudden onset of shortness of breath during sleep, often associated with heart failure. Choice B, Sleep apnea, involves pauses in breathing during sleep but is not specifically associated with heart failure. Choice C, Orthopnea, is difficulty breathing that occurs when lying down and is relieved by sitting up, not necessarily associated with heart failure. Choice D, Dyspnea, is a general term for difficulty breathing and does not specifically describe the sudden onset at night associated with heart failure as seen in paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

5. What is the term used to describe a condition where the blood flow to the brain is temporarily interrupted, often referred to as a 'mini-stroke'?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Transient ischemic attack (TIA). A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is often called a 'mini-stroke' because it is characterized by a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain, resulting in stroke-like symptoms that typically resolve within a short period. Choice B, 'Stroke,' is incorrect because a stroke involves a more prolonged interruption of blood flow, leading to lasting brain damage. Choices C and D, 'Myocardial infarction' and 'Pulmonary embolism,' are unrelated conditions involving the heart and lungs, respectively, and do not describe a temporary interruption of blood flow to the brain.

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