Nursing Elites

1. The client on clopidogrel (Plavix) should be monitored for which adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet medication that helps prevent blood clots. As a side effect, it can increase the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in urine or stools, or prolonged bleeding from cuts, is crucial. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with clopidogrel use.

2. What is a condition where the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently too high, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Diabetes
• D. Hyperlipidemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a condition where the force of the blood against the artery walls is consistently too high. This increased pressure can lead to serious health issues such as heart disease and stroke. Hypotension (choice B) refers to low blood pressure, which is not the correct term in this context. Diabetes (choice C) and hyperlipidemia (choice D) are also serious conditions but are not specifically characterized by consistently high blood pressure.

3. Which type of medication is used to reduce the workload on the heart by slowing down the heart rate and lowering blood pressure?

• A. Beta-blocker
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Calcium channel blocker
• D. Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Beta-blocker. Beta-blockers are medications that reduce the workload on the heart by slowing down the heart rate and lowering blood pressure. They are commonly used in the treatment of heart conditions such as hypertension and heart failure. ACE inhibitors (B) work by dilating blood vessels to reduce blood pressure, calcium channel blockers (C) prevent calcium from entering the heart muscle and blood vessel walls, and diuretics (D) help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production.

4. A client on an ACE inhibitor reports a persistent cough. What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. Reassure the client that the cough is a common side effect and is usually not serious.
• B. Instruct the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider as it may require discontinuation of the medication.
• C. Advise the client to use a humidifier at night to relieve the cough.
• D. Suggest the client take an over-the-counter cough suppressant.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent cough in a client on an ACE inhibitor may indicate a serious side effect that requires discontinuation of the medication. Instructing the client to report the cough to the healthcare provider is essential for proper evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client may delay necessary action. Choice C is incorrect as using a humidifier may not address the underlying cause of the cough. Choice D is incorrect because taking a cough suppressant without healthcare provider guidance may mask symptoms without addressing the cause.

5. The nurse is administering nitroglycerin IV to a client with chest pain. What is the most important parameter to monitor?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Heart rate
• C. Oxygen saturation
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure. When administering nitroglycerin IV to a client with chest pain, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as nitroglycerin can cause significant hypotension. While heart rate, oxygen saturation, and respiratory rate are important parameters to assess, blood pressure takes precedence in this scenario due to the potential hypotensive effects of nitroglycerin.

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