ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2
1. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Discontinue the heparin drip prior to initiating the Coumadin
- B. Check the client’s INR prior to beginning Coumadin
- C. Clarify the order with the health care provider as soon as possible
- D. Administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.
2. In assessing the client's chest, which position best shows chest expansion as well as its movements?
- A. Sitting
- B. Prone
- C. Sidelying
- D. Supine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sitting. When the client is seated, their chest is in an optimal position for observing the full range of chest expansion during breathing. This position allows for easy visualization of chest movements and expansion as the client breathes in and out, providing a comprehensive assessment of respiratory function. Choice B, Prone, is incorrect as lying face down would not provide a clear view of chest expansion. Choice C, Sidelying, is also incorrect as this position may limit the visibility of chest movements. Choice D, Supine, is not the best position for assessing chest expansion as it may not offer a clear observation of chest movements during breathing.
3. Students in the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course are expected to achieve entry-level competencies for which of the following?
- A. Medical-surgical nursing
- B. Obstetric and newborn nursing
- C. Pediatric nursing
- D. Trauma nursing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical-surgical nursing. In the resident M6 Practical Nurse Course, students are expected to achieve entry-level competencies in medical-surgical nursing. This area of nursing focuses on caring for adult patients with a variety of medical conditions. Obstetric and newborn nursing (choice B), pediatric nursing (choice C), and trauma nursing (choice D) are specialized areas within nursing that are not typically covered in entry-level practical nurse courses, making them incorrect choices.
4. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
- A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
- B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
- C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
- D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.
5. The nurse is analyzing laboratory values for the assigned clients. Which finding, based on the client's medical history, indicates the need for immediate follow-up?
- A. Client with chronic kidney disease and serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL
- B. Client with diabetes mellitus and a glycosylated hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) of 7.0%
- C. Client with heart failure and a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) of 140 pg/mL
- D. Client who is male and has anemia with hemoglobin of 16.5 g/dL and hematocrit of 45%
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An HbA1c of 7.0% in a client with diabetes mellitus indicates poor long-term glucose control, necessitating immediate follow-up. Choice A, chronic kidney disease with a serum creatinine of 1.6 mg/dL, though concerning, does not indicate an immediate need for follow-up. Choice C, heart failure with a BNP of 140 pg/mL, may require monitoring but not immediate follow-up. Choice D, a male client with anemia and normal hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, does not warrant immediate attention based on the provided information.
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