the client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip an intravenous anticoagulant the health care provider orders wa
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2

1. The client diagnosed with acute vein thrombosis is receiving a continuous heparin drip, an intravenous anticoagulant. The health care provider orders warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the Coumadin along with the heparin drip as ordered. Heparin and warfarin are often given together initially because warfarin takes a few days to become effective. Discontinuing the heparin drip prior to initiating Coumadin could leave the patient without anticoagulation coverage during the period when warfarin's effects are not yet established. Checking the client's INR prior to beginning Coumadin is important but not the immediate action to take when both medications are ordered together. Clarifying the order with the health care provider is unnecessary in this scenario as it is common practice to give heparin and warfarin concurrently in the transition period.

2. Which intervention should the nurse implement for the client who has an ileal conduit?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with an ileal conduit is to report to the healthcare provider any decrease in urinary output. A decrease in urinary output can be indicative of a blockage or other complication, necessitating immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because pouching the stoma with a margin around it is not directly related to managing complications. Choice B is incorrect as referring the client to an ostomy association may be beneficial for education but is not the immediate action needed for decreased urinary output. Choice D is incorrect because monitoring for infection, although important, is not the priority when dealing with a potential complication like decreased urinary output.

3. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client diagnosed with fluid volume excess?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct outcome for a client diagnosed with fluid volume excess is the absence of adventitious breath sounds. This indicates that fluid is not accumulating in the lungs, a crucial sign in managing fluid volume excess. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because voiding a specific amount of urine, having elastic skin turgor, and a serum creatinine level do not directly relate to managing fluid volume excess.

4. Which nursing instruction should the nurse discuss with the client who is receiving glucocorticoids for Addison’s disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because tapering glucocorticoids is crucial to prevent adrenal insufficiency, which can occur if the medication is stopped abruptly. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to dose adjustments during stress or infection, not discontinuation. Choice C is incorrect because it does not specifically address the issue of stopping the medication. Choice D is not directly related to the management of glucocorticoid therapy for Addison’s disease.

5. The client with peripheral vascular disease is being taught by the nurse. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes. Choice A is correct as moisture between the toes can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice B is also correct as proper footwear helps prevent injury and promotes circulation. Choice C, cutting toenails straight across, is incorrect for peripheral vascular disease clients as cutting them in an arch can reduce the risk of ingrown toenails, which is important for clients with diabetes to prevent complications. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate interventions for the client with peripheral vascular disease.

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