six hours after major abdominal surgery a male client complains of severe abdominal pain is pale and perspiring has a thread rapid pulse and states he
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1

1. Six hours after major abdominal surgery, a male client complains of severe abdominal pain; is pale and perspiring; has a thready, rapid pulse; and states he feels faint. The nurse checks the client’s medication administration record and determines that the client receives another injection of pain medication in an hour. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to call the practitioner, report the client’s symptoms, and obtain further orders. The client's symptoms, including severe abdominal pain, pallor, perspiration, thready rapid pulse, and feeling faint, are indicative of potential complications like internal bleeding, which require immediate medical evaluation. Explaining to the client that it is too early for pain medication or repositioning the client for comfort are not appropriate actions given the severity of the symptoms. Administering the injection early without consulting the practitioner can be dangerous and may worsen the client's condition.

2. Which of the following is a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering phosphate binders. Phosphate binders are a primary intervention for managing hyperphosphatemia as they help by binding phosphorus in the gut, preventing its absorption. Increasing calcium intake (choice A) or phosphorus intake (choice B) would exacerbate hyperphosphatemia. Decreasing calcium intake (choice C) is not a primary intervention for managing high phosphorus levels.

3. Which nursing action(s) can result in disciplinary action by state boards of nursing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Disclosing client health information to unauthorized individuals like a client's neighbor (A) and improper delegation of tasks to unlicensed personnel (B) are serious violations of patient confidentiality and safety standards, which can lead to disciplinary action by state boards of nursing. Choice C, releasing client health information to the client's durable power of attorney, is not a violation as it involves sharing information with an authorized individual. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect, making D the correct answer.

4. The client is complaining of painful swallowing secondary to mouth ulcers. Which statement by the client indicates appropriate management?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Avoiding irritants like spicy foods, tobacco, and alcohol is crucial in managing mouth ulcers as they can further irritate and worsen the condition. Choice A is incorrect as using a soft-bristle toothbrush may still cause discomfort. Choice B is incorrect as alcohol-containing mouthwashes can be irritating. Choice C is incorrect as swallowing antifungal solution meant for topical use is not appropriate and can be harmful.

5. For a patient with a history of liver disease, which type of diet is most appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with a history of liver disease, a low-fat diet is most appropriate. Liver disease can impair fat metabolism, leading to fat accumulation in the liver cells and worsening the condition. A low-fat diet helps reduce stress on the liver and manage symptoms associated with liver disease. High-protein diets may not be suitable for individuals with liver disease as they can increase the risk of hepatic encephalopathy. High-carbohydrate diets may lead to insulin resistance and fat accumulation in the liver. While protein restriction may be necessary in some cases, a balanced intake of high-quality protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health, making a low-protein diet not the most appropriate choice for all patients with liver disease.

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