ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4
1. Performing and supervising therapeutic and preventive procedures that have been planned for a patient is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
- A. Evaluation
- B. Planning
- C. Implementation
- D. Assessment
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In nursing care, implementation involves carrying out and supervising the planned procedures for the patient. This step focuses on putting the care plan into action. Choice A, Evaluation, involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, not performing procedures. Choice B, Planning, is about developing a plan of care, not executing it. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step in the nursing process where data is collected and analyzed to determine the patient's needs, not the step involving performing and supervising procedures.
2. Which individual would be at the greatest risk for deficiencies in water-soluble vitamins?
- A. An individual who regularly consumes fruits and vegetables.
- B. An individual with a high intake of dairy products.
- C. An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.
- D. An individual who frequently eats organ meats.
Correct answer: An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.
Rationale: The correct answer is 'An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.' Processed foods are often deficient in water-soluble vitamins such as vitamin C and B vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies. On the other hand, fruits, vegetables, and organ meats are rich sources of these vitamins, so individuals who consume these regularly are less likely to develop deficiencies. While dairy products do contain some water-soluble vitamins, they are not depleted as quickly as they are in a diet high in processed foods, making a deficiency less likely.
3. Distinguish between necessary, sufficient, and contributory causes of abnormal behavior.
- A. Necessary causes are required for a disorder to develop but do not guarantee it.
- B. Sufficient causes guarantee a disorder will develop, but they are not required.
- C. Contributory causes increase the likelihood of a disorder but are neither necessary nor sufficient.
- D. Contributory causes are conditions that guarantee the occurrence of a disorder.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In understanding abnormal behavior, it is crucial to differentiate between necessary, sufficient, and contributory causes. Necessary causes are those that are required for a disorder to develop, meaning that without them, the disorder would not occur. However, their presence does not guarantee the occurrence of the disorder. Sufficient causes, on the other hand, are those that alone can guarantee the development of a disorder, but they are not the only factors that can lead to it. Contributory causes are factors that increase the likelihood of a disorder but are not essential on their own nor do they guarantee the disorder. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it accurately describes the role of necessary causes in the development of abnormal behavior. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they misrepresent the definitions and roles of sufficient and contributory causes in causing abnormal behavior.
4. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in the initial weeks of treatment?
- A. Weight loss
- B. Increased risk of suicide
- C. Hypertension
- D. Photosensitivity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed an SSRI for major depressive disorder, the nurse should closely monitor for an increased risk of suicide, especially in younger patients, during the initial weeks of treatment. SSRIs may initially increase energy levels before improving mood, which can lead to a higher risk of suicide in some individuals. Weight loss is not a common side effect of SSRIs and may actually be a concern for some patients with major depressive disorder who experience appetite changes. Hypertension is not typically associated with SSRIs, and photosensitivity is not a common side effect of this class of medications.
5. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
- B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
- C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
- D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.