ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 1
1. A patient on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for which condition?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Hypertension
- D. Osteoporosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Patients on long-term steroid therapy should be monitored for osteoporosis due to the medication's potential to decrease bone density. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. While long-term steroid therapy can also lead to hyperglycemia, hypothyroidism, and hypertension, the primary concern and most common risk associated with prolonged steroid use is osteoporosis.
2. Patients with gallbladder disease should reduce their intake of:
- A. Protein
- B. Sodium
- C. Cholesterol
- D. Fat
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Patients with gallbladder disease are advised to reduce their fat intake because fats can trigger gallbladder symptoms such as pain and bloating. While protein, sodium, and cholesterol may also impact overall health, reducing fat intake specifically helps manage gallbladder-related symptoms effectively. Protein is important for tissue repair, sodium can affect blood pressure, and cholesterol levels impact heart health, but in the context of gallbladder disease, fat reduction is the most beneficial.
3. The nurse on the postsurgical unit received a client who was transferred from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) and is planning care for this client. The nurse understands that staff should begin planning for this client’s discharge at which point during the hospitalization?
- A. Is admitted to the surgical unit
- B. Is transferred from the PACU to the postsurgical unit
- C. Is able to perform activities of daily living independently
- D. Has been assessed by the healthcare provider for the first time after surgery
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin as soon as the patient is admitted to the surgical unit to ensure a smooth transition. It is important to start early to address any potential barriers to discharge, coordinate resources, and provide adequate education and support. Choices B, C, and D are not the appropriate points to start discharge planning as they do not mark the beginning of the hospitalization phase related to the surgical unit.
4. What is the primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia?
- A. The client will contact the healthcare provider if feeling unwell.
- B. The client will adhere to the medical regimen.
- C. The client will live as normal a life as possible.
- D. The client will demonstrate understanding of treatments.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client diagnosed with sickle cell anemia is to help them live as normal a life as possible. This involves managing symptoms, preventing crises, and promoting overall well-being. While options A, B, and D are important aspects of care, the ultimate goal is to enhance the client's quality of life and support them in leading a fulfilling and active lifestyle despite their condition.
5. Which signs/symptoms would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with an insulinoma?
- A. Nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis
- B. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor
- C. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
- D. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulinomas lead to excessive insulin production, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include nervousness, jitteriness, and diaphoresis. These symptoms result from the low blood sugar levels. Flushed skin, dry mouth, and tented skin turgor (choice B) are more indicative of dehydration. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia (choice C) are classic symptoms of diabetes mellitus, not insulinomas. Hypertension, tachycardia, and feeling hot (choice D) are not typical symptoms of insulinomas.
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