Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for examining the rectum?

• A. Prone
• B. Sim's
• C. Knee-chest
• D. Lithotomy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The knee-chest position is the most optimal position for examining the rectum. In this position, the patient kneels on the examination table with their chest resting on it, creating a straight line from the head to the lower back. This position allows for easier access and visualization of the rectal area, making it the preferred choice for rectal examinations. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down and is not ideal for rectal exams as it does not provide good access. Sim's position (choice B) is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed, also not ideal for rectal exams. Lithotomy position (choice D) is lying on the back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, primarily used for gynecological exams and surgery, not for rectal examinations.

2. Which of the following patients is at greater risk for contracting an infection?

• A. A patient with leukopenia
• B. A patient receiving broad-spectrum antibiotics
• C. A postoperative patient who has undergone orthopedic surgery
• D. A newly diagnosed diabetic patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Leukopenia, characterized by low white blood cell count, significantly reduces the body's ability to fight infections. Patients with leukopenia are at a higher risk of contracting infections due to compromised immune defenses.

3. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Anorexia
• D. Dysphagia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The symptoms of fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weakness in a patient after starting furosemide therapy are indicative of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can manifest with muscle weakness, cramps, and fatigue due to alterations in neuromuscular function and decreased ATP production.

4. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

5. What is the meaning of PRN?

• A. When advice
• B. Immediately
• C. When necessary
• D. Now

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct meaning of PRN is 'when necessary.' The abbreviation 'PRN' comes from the Latin term 'pro re nata,' which is commonly used in medical contexts to indicate that a medication should be taken as needed, not at scheduled intervals. Choice A ('When advice') is incorrect as PRN does not refer to seeking advice. Choice B ('Immediately') is incorrect as PRN does not imply urgency. Choice D ('Now') is incorrect as PRN does not mean 'immediate' but rather 'as needed.' Therefore, the correct answer is C, 'When necessary.'

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