Nursing Elites

1. When teaching about electrical fire prevention at a community health fair, which of the following information should be included?

• A. Use three-pronged grounded plugs.
• B. Cover extension cords with a rug.
• C. Check for tingling sensations around the cord to ensure electricity is working.
• D. Remove the plug from the socket by pulling the plug, not the cord.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use three-pronged grounded plugs because they are safer and reduce the risk of electrical fires. Option B is incorrect as covering extension cords with a rug can pose a fire hazard. Option C is incorrect; tingling sensations around a cord indicate an electrical issue, not proper functioning. Option D is unsafe; plugs should be removed from the socket by pulling the plug, not the cord, to prevent damage and reduce the risk of electrical hazards.

2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Hypotension
• D. Dyspnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.

3. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:

• A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
• B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
• C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.

4. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion?

• A. Hemoglobinuria
• B. Chest pain
• C. Urticaria
• D. Distended neck veins

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hemoglobinuria is a characteristic sign of a hemolytic reaction to a blood transfusion. Hemolytic reactions can lead to the destruction of red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the urine, which presents as hemoglobinuria. Chest pain, urticaria, and distended neck veins are not specific signs of a hemolytic reaction and may be associated with other conditions or reactions.

5. During a shift change, a nurse is receiving a report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which of the following client information should the nurse report?

• A. High platelets
• B. Hypertension
• C. Lower platelets
• D. High temperatures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Lower platelets can indicate a potential risk of bleeding in a postoperative client. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, can lead to increased bleeding tendencies and should be promptly reported to the healthcare team for appropriate management. Monitoring platelet levels is crucial in postoperative care to prevent complications related to inadequate clotting ability.

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