ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons?
- A. Parkinson’s disease
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease)
- D. Alzheimer’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. While Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are serious conditions, they are not typically associated with dementia in the same way Alzheimer’s disease is. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
2. A client is in a seclusion room following violent behavior and continues to display aggressive behavior. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Confront the client about this behavior.
- B. Express sympathy for the client's situation.
- C. Speak assertively to the client.
- D. Stand within 30 cm (1 ft) of the client when speaking with them.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client in a seclusion room following violent behavior continues to display aggression, it is essential for the nurse to confront the client about this behavior. Confrontation can help set boundaries, address the behavior, and ensure the safety of both the client and the healthcare team. Expressing sympathy (Choice B) may not address the immediate need for behavior management. Speaking assertively (Choice C) can be important but should be coupled with addressing the specific behavior. Standing within close proximity (Choice D) of an aggressive client can escalate the situation and compromise safety, so it is not the appropriate action to take.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?
- A. Substernal retractions
- B. Hematuria
- C. Temperature 37.9°C (100.2°F)
- D. Sneezing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Substernal retractions are a concerning sign of respiratory distress and can indicate acute chest syndrome, a severe complication of sickle-cell anemia. It results from vaso-occlusion in the pulmonary vasculature, leading to impaired oxygenation. Prompt reporting of this symptom is crucial for early intervention to prevent further complications. Hematuria, a high temperature, and sneezing are not specific manifestations of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate notification to the provider in this context.
4. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?
- A. Non-rebreather mask
- B. Venturi mask
- C. Nasal cannula
- D. Simple face mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.
5. A client is being instructed on how to perform pursed-lip breathing. Which of the following should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Take quick breaths upon inhalation.
- B. Place your hand over your stomach.
- C. Take a deep breath in through your nose.
- D. Puff your cheeks upon exhalation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a breathing technique that involves inhaling slowly through the nose and exhaling gently through pursed lips. This technique helps improve breathing efficiency and can be beneficial for individuals with respiratory conditions. Instructing the client to take a deep breath in through the nose is essential for proper execution of pursed-lip breathing, making choice C the correct answer.
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