ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons?
- A. Parkinson’s disease
- B. Multiple sclerosis
- C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Lou Gehrig’s disease)
- D. Alzheimer’s disease
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease is the most common cause of dementia among elderly persons. It is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects memory, thinking, and behavior. While Parkinson’s disease, multiple sclerosis, and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis are serious conditions, they are not typically associated with dementia in the same way Alzheimer’s disease is. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected flail chest. Which of the following findings should the professional not expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Hypotension
- D. Dyspnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is not typically associated with a flail chest. Flail chest is characterized by paradoxical chest wall movement, respiratory distress, and hypoxia, but it does not usually cause bradycardia. The other options, such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor oxygenation), hypotension (low blood pressure), and dyspnea (difficulty breathing), are commonly seen in patients with flail chest due to the underlying respiratory compromise.
3. A client is being instructed on the use of an incentive spirometer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will place the adapter on my finger to read my blood oxygen saturation level.''
- B. ''I will lie on my back with my knees bent.''
- C. ''I will rest my hand over my abdomen to create resistance.''
- D. ''I will take in a deep breath and hold it before exhaling.''
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer demonstrates an understanding of the proper technique for using an incentive spirometer. Incentive spirometry helps to improve lung function by encouraging deep breathing and sustaining the inhalation to fully expand the lungs. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the correct instructions for using an incentive spirometer.
4. A patient presents with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:
- A. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions.
- B. Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, hacking cough.
- C. Ineffective individual coping with COPD.
- D. Pain related to immobilization of affected leg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The patient's symptoms of shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough all point towards a potential airway clearance issue. This makes option A, 'Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions,' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. It directly addresses the thick secretions and suggests a potential cause of the breathing difficulty the patient is experiencing.
5. A client experiencing dyspnea will receive continuous oxygen. Which oxygen device should be used to deliver a precise amount of oxygen?
- A. Non-rebreather mask
- B. Venturi mask
- C. Nasal cannula
- D. Simple face mask
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Venturi mask is the most appropriate choice for delivering a precise amount of oxygen to a client with dyspnea. Unlike other oxygen delivery devices, the Venturi mask allows for accurate oxygen concentration delivery by controlling the amount of air entrained. This feature is crucial in ensuring the client receives the prescribed oxygen concentration, especially in cases where precise oxygen delivery is required.
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