ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following interventions promotes patient safety?
- A. Assess the patient’s ability to ambulate and transfer from a bed to a chair
- B. Demonstrate the signal system to the patient
- C. Check to see that the patient is wearing their identification band
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All the listed interventions are essential for promoting patient safety. Assessing the patient’s ability to ambulate and transfer helps prevent falls, demonstrating the signal system ensures effective communication in emergencies, and checking the patient's identification band aids in accurate identification and treatment. By combining these interventions, healthcare providers can enhance patient safety and quality of care.
2. A nurse obtained a client’s pulse and found the rate to be above normal. The nurse documents this finding as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Hyperpyrexia
- C. Arrhythmia
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a nurse finds a client's pulse rate to be above normal, it is documented as tachycardia. Tachycardia specifically refers to an elevated heart rate, while tachypnea is rapid breathing, hyperpyrexia is high fever, and arrhythmia is an irregular heartbeat. Therefore, the correct term to describe an above-normal pulse rate is tachycardia.
3. A client in the emergency department is experiencing an acute asthma attack. Which assessment indicates an improvement in respiratory status?
- A. SaO2 95%
- B. Wheezing
- C. Retraction of sternal muscles
- D. Premature ventricular complexes (PVC's)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An SaO2 of 95% indicates an improvement in the client's oxygen saturation, suggesting better respiratory status. In asthma exacerbation, a decrease in SaO2 levels would signal worsening respiratory distress. Wheezing, retraction of sternal muscles, and premature ventricular complexes are indicators of respiratory compromise and worsening respiratory status in acute asthma attacks. Monitoring SaO2 levels is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of interventions and guiding treatment decisions.
4. What is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient who develops dyspnea and shortness of breath?
- A. Maintain the patient on strict bed rest at all times
- B. Maintain the patient in an orthopneic position as needed
- C. Administer high-flow oxygen immediately
- D. Encourage the patient to engage in vigorous physical activity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining the patient in an orthopneic position as needed is the most appropriate nursing order for a patient experiencing dyspnea and shortness of breath. This position helps to optimize lung expansion, improve oxygenation, and alleviate breathing difficulties. It is a strategic intervention to enhance respiratory function in patients with respiratory distress. Choice A is incorrect because strict bed rest may not address the underlying respiratory issue effectively. Choice C is premature as administering high-flow oxygen should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Choice D is inappropriate as encouraging vigorous physical activity can exacerbate breathing problems in a patient experiencing dyspnea.
5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following should the healthcare provider identify as a manifestation of pulmonary congestion?
- A. Frothy, pink sputum
- B. Jugular vein distention
- C. Weight gain
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pulmonary congestion is a common manifestation of left-sided heart failure. When the left side of the heart fails, blood backs up into the lungs, leading to pulmonary congestion. This can result in symptoms such as frothy, pink-tinged sputum due to the presence of blood in the respiratory secretions. Jugular vein distention, weight gain, and bradypnea are also associated with heart failure, but frothy, pink sputum specifically indicates pulmonary congestion in this scenario.
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