Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Glucagon
• D. Vitamin B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.

2. A provider prescribes phenobarbital for a client who has a seizure disorder. The medication has a long half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse expect to administer this medication?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Phenobarbital, with a long half-life of 4 days, remains at therapeutic levels in the body for an extended period. Due to this prolonged duration of action, the nurse should administer phenobarbital once a day to maintain a consistent therapeutic effect without the need for multiple daily doses. Administering the medication more than once a day would not be necessary and could increase the risk of side effects or toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer phenobarbital once a day.

3. A client in a coronary care unit is being admitted after CPR post cardiac arrest. The client is receiving IV lidocaine at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions?

• A. Prevents dysrhythmias
• B. Slows intestinal motility
• C. Dissolves blood clots
• D. Relieves pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lidocaine is administered to prevent dysrhythmias by delaying conduction in the heart and reducing the automaticity of heart tissue. This action helps stabilize the heart's electrical activity and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias post-cardiac arrest. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lidocaine is not used for slowing intestinal motility, dissolving blood clots, or relieving pain in this context.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar disorder. The provider should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?

• A. Severe hypertension
• B. Coarse tremors
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle spasm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor for this symptom as it indicates a potential overdose of the medication. Severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasms are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity but rather a symptom of hypertensive crisis. Constipation is not a typical sign of Lithium toxicity but could be seen in other conditions. Muscle spasms are not specific to Lithium toxicity but can occur due to various reasons.

5. When a client is starting long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma, what adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is a common adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which can lead to fluid retention. Monitoring weight changes is important as it helps in early identification of this adverse effect, enabling timely interventions to manage it. Choice B, nervousness, is not typically associated with oral prednisone use. Bradycardia (Choice C) is unlikely as prednisone usually causes tachycardia or increased heart rate. Constipation (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone compared to weight gain.

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