Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Glucagon
• D. Vitamin B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.

2. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

3. Which of the following drugs is associated with extreme photosensitivity as a reaction?

• A. Digitalis
• B. Niacin
• C. Tetracycline
• D. Fluoroquinolones

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tetracycline is known to cause extreme photosensitivity reactions, making individuals more sensitive to sunlight and increasing the risk of severe sunburn. It is essential for patients taking tetracycline to protect themselves from excessive sun exposure to prevent adverse reactions.

4. A nurse reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain a blood specimen immediately prior to administering the next dose of medication.
• B. Verify that the client has been taking the medication for 24 hours before obtaining a blood specimen.
• C. Ask the client to provide a urine specimen after the next dose of medication.
• D. Administer the medication and obtain a blood specimen 30 minutes later.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify the trough levels of a medication accurately, the nurse should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of the medication. The trough level represents the lowest concentration of the medication in the bloodstream, typically right before the next dose is due. This timing ensures an accurate assessment of the drug's concentration in the body at its lowest point, aiding in determining the drug's effectiveness and potential toxicity levels. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for 24 hours would not provide the trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect as obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

Similar Questions