Nursing Elites

1. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Vitamin K
• C. Glucagon
• D. Vitamin B

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct antidote for Warfarin is Vitamin K. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Administering Vitamin K helps reverse its effects by replenishing these factors. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, Glucagon is used to treat severe low blood sugar, and Vitamin B is not the antidote for Warfarin.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

• A. Whole blood
• B. Platelets
• C. Fresh frozen plasma
• D. Packed red blood cells

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

3. Medications classified as angiotensin II receptor agents typically end in?

• A. Sartan
• B. Ase
• C. Olol
• D. Pril

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Angiotensin II receptor agents belong to the drug class called angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs). The generic names of ARBs usually end in -sartan, helping to identify this specific class of medications. Therefore, medications that end in -sartan are likely to be angiotensin II receptor agents. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because drugs ending in -ase (like streptokinase), -olol (like propranolol), and -pril (like lisinopril) typically belong to different drug classes with distinct mechanisms of action.

4. When starting therapy with Lisinopril, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Tinnitus
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Cough
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. Clients should be informed to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider if it occurs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tinnitus, diarrhea, and weight gain are not commonly associated with Lisinopril therapy.

5. A client has a new prescription for Valproic Acid. The client should be informed that which of the following laboratory tests need to be completed periodically? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Thrombocyte count.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Amylase.
• D. Liver function tests.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Valproic acid can lead to thrombocytopenia, making it essential to monitor the client's thrombocyte count periodically. Additionally, valproic acid can cause pancreatitis, necessitating the monitoring of amylase levels. Furthermore, valproic acid carries a risk of hepatotoxicity, requiring regular monitoring of liver function tests.

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