a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin which of the following statements should the nurse include in the te
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024

1. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Warfarin interacts with vitamin K, so clients should be instructed to avoid foods high in vitamin K. This is because vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. It is important to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-containing foods to keep the medication working effectively. Therefore, the correct statement for the nurse to include in the teaching is to advise the client to avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking Warfarin. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Regular blood testing is necessary with Warfarin to monitor its effects and adjust the dosage if needed (Choice A). Taking over-the-counter NSAIDs with Warfarin is not safe due to an increased risk of bleeding (Choice B). Warfarin can be taken with or without food, so there is no specific requirement to take it with food (Choice D).

2. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. When teaching a client with a prescription for Loperamide for diarrhea, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include when teaching a client with a prescription for Loperamide is to 'Avoid activities that require alertness.' Loperamide can cause drowsiness, so clients should avoid such activities until they know how the medication affects them.

5. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.

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