Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum lithium
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.

2. During the repair of a skin laceration, a client receives a local anesthetic of Lidocaine. For which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse monitor the client?

• A. Seizures
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seizures are a potential adverse reaction following the administration of local anesthetics like Lidocaine. This adverse effect is important to monitor as it can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. It is crucial for the nurse to be vigilant in recognizing any signs of seizure activity to ensure the client's safety and well-being.

3. Why has an ACE inhibitor been prescribed following an MI?

• A. “This medication will lower your potassium level.”
• B. “ACE inhibitors have been found to reduce mortality following MI.”
• C. “ACE inhibitors are always prescribed with a beta blocker and calcium channel blocker following an MI.”
• D. “This medication will treat your hypotension.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Following a myocardial infarction (MI), ACE inhibitors are commonly prescribed due to their proven benefit in reducing mortality and improving outcomes post-MI. These medications help by decreasing the workload of the heart, preventing remodeling of the heart chambers, and improving survival rates. While ACE inhibitors may have effects on potassium levels, the primary reason for their prescription post-MI is their mortality-reducing properties.

4. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide to treat nausea. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication before bedtime.
• B. I will discontinue this medication if I experience drowsiness.
• C. I should report restlessness or involuntary movements.
• D. This medication can change the color of my urine to orange.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Reporting restlessness or involuntary movements is crucial as they can be signs of extrapyramidal symptoms, a potential side effect of Metoclopramide. These symptoms should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking the medication before bedtime, discontinuing it due to drowsiness, or expecting urine color changes are not relevant teaching points for Metoclopramide use.

5. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Ketamine
• B. Naltrexone
• C. Flumazenil
• D. Fluvoxamine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

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