a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed lithium which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential to
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who asks about using Propranolol to treat hypertension. The provider should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Blockade of beta2 receptors in the lungs causes bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated in clients with asthma. Using propranolol in asthma can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and potentially lead to respiratory distress or exacerbation of asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Glaucoma, hypertension, and tachycardia are not contraindications for taking propranolol. In fact, propranolol is commonly used to treat hypertension and tachycardia.

3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Eat a diet high in potassium.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Instructing the client to eat a diet high in potassium can help counteract the potassium-wasting effect of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide can be taken at different times of the day based on individual needs. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a general instruction for all clients taking furosemide.

4. A client with Schizophrenia is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to the client taking Risperidone for Schizophrenia is to notify the provider if they develop breast enlargement. Risperidone can lead to an increase in prolactin levels, causing gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report these manifestations to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing snack intake to prevent weight loss is not a specific concern related to Risperidone. Mild seizures are not a common side effect of Risperidone, so this instruction is unnecessary. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like decreased libido rather than an increase.

5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

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