Nursing Elites

1. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

• A. 45 minutes to 18 hours
• B. 30 minutes to 12 hours
• C. 90 minutes to 36 hours
• D. 60 minutes to 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 3 tablets
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.

3. A client is taking Furosemide for heart failure. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium.
• B. Serum calcium.
• C. Serum sodium.
• D. Serum magnesium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic commonly used in heart failure, can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) as a side effect. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing the client's serum potassium levels regularly while on Furosemide. Serum calcium, sodium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Furosemide and are not the primary focus of monitoring for adverse effects of this medication.

4. A client has been prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning.
• B. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Chew the tablet and mix it with applesauce if swallowing is difficult.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to minimize the chance of esophageal irritation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water after getting up in the morning. This is important to reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Choice B is also correct as remaining upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation and ensures proper absorption. Choice C is incorrect because Alendronate tablets should not be chewed or mixed with any other substance. Choice D is incorrect as taking the medication at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down after ingestion.

5. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.

Similar Questions