Nursing Elites

1. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

• A. 45 minutes to 18 hours
• B. 30 minutes to 12 hours
• C. 90 minutes to 36 hours
• D. 60 minutes to 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

2. When educating a client who has a prescription for Propranolol, what instruction should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Discontinue the medication if you feel fatigued.
• C. Expect to have decreased heart rate with this medication.
• D. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Propranolol is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt cessation can result in rebound hypertension or other cardiac complications. It is crucial for the client to taper off the medication gradually under healthcare provider supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as discontinuing the medication based on fatigue alone is not advisable without consulting a healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because while Propranolol can decrease heart rate, it is not the primary instruction to provide in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider immediately?

• A. Lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L
• B. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
• C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
• D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL should be reported to the provider immediately. While a lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range, a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL could suggest early signs of kidney dysfunction, especially concerning in a client on long-term lithium therapy. It is crucial to monitor kidney function closely because lithium can be nephrotoxic over time. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function and should prompt immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Potassium and sodium levels within normal range are not immediate concerns when compared to potential kidney issues.

4. A client has a new prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication.
• C. Increase your intake of fiber while on this medication.
• D. Avoid taking the medication before bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on Oxycodone/Acetaminophen. This is important to prevent exceeding the maximum recommended dose and reducing the risk of liver toxicity. Oxycodone/Acetaminophen already contains Acetaminophen, so additional intake can lead to an overdose of this component. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication on an empty stomach or increasing fiber intake are not specific instructions related to this medication. Avoiding taking the medication before bedtime is not directly relevant to the combination of Oxycodone/Acetaminophen.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. Which of the following medications, when used concurrently with Digoxin, places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Verapamil
• C. Warfarin
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to Digoxin toxicity. When these medications are used together, the client is at an increased risk. Phenytoin (Choice A) does not significantly impact digoxin levels. Warfarin (Choice C) and aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is Verapamil (Choice B) due to its potential to raise digoxin levels and cause toxicity.

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