ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. What is the best description of resonance?
- A. Sounds created by air-filled structures
- B. Short, high-pitched, and thudding
- C. Moderately loud with a musical quality
- D. Drum-like
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Resonance refers to the quality of sound produced by vibrations that are reinforced by other vibrations of the same frequency. In the context of the human body, resonance is often associated with sounds produced by air-filled structures like the lungs, vocal cords, and resonating cavities. Therefore, the best description of resonance from the given options is 'Sounds created by air-filled structures.' This choice aligns with the concept of resonance as it relates to sound production in the human body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to the concept of resonance or its association with air-filled structures.
2. The nurse observes that Mr. Adams begins to have increased difficulty breathing. She elevates the head of the bed to the high Fowler position, which decreases his respiratory distress. The nurse documents this breathing as:
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Eupnea
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Hyperventilation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Orthopnea is a condition where a person experiences difficulty breathing when lying flat but finds relief when sitting up or standing. Elevating the head of the bed to the high Fowler position helps alleviate this symptom. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, eupnea is normal breathing, and hyperventilation is breathing excessively fast or deep.
3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has dysphagia and a new dietary prescription. Which of the following should the healthcare professional NOT include in the plan of care?
- A. Have suction equipment available for use
- B. Feed the client thickened liquids
- C. Place food on the unaffected side of the client's mouth
- D. Assign an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a client with dysphagia, it is crucial to ensure safe feeding practices. Assigning an assistive personnel to feed the client slowly may not be appropriate as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids, having suction equipment available, and placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth are all appropriate measures to support a client with dysphagia in safe eating and drinking.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?
- A. Bradypnea
- B. Pleural friction rub
- C. Petechiae
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.
5. A new head nurse on a unit is distressed about the poor staffing on the 11 p.m. to 7 a.m. shift. What should she do?
- A. Complain to her fellow nurses
- B. Wait until she knows more about the unit
- C. Discuss the problem with her supervisor
- D. Inform the staff that they must volunteer to rotate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the new head nurse should discuss the problem with her supervisor. This is the most appropriate action as the supervisor is in a position to address staffing concerns effectively and make necessary changes. Complaining to fellow nurses may not lead to a solution, waiting may exacerbate the issue, and demanding staff rotation without proper discussion is not a collaborative approach to resolving the problem.
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