Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
• B. FACES pain scale.
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds.
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Deviation of the trachea
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Pleuritic pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.

3. When is sterile technique used?

• A. During strict isolation procedures
• B. After terminal disinfection is performed
• C. For invasive procedures
• D. When protective isolation is necessary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sterile technique is utilized during invasive procedures to prevent the introduction of pathogens, minimizing the risk of infections. This strict approach ensures that the procedure is performed in a sterile environment, reducing the chances of contamination and subsequent complications.

4. Which deficiency is most commonly seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder?

• A. Thiamine
• B. Riboflavin
• C. Pyridoxine
• D. Pantothenic acid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thiamine deficiency, also known as Vitamin B1 deficiency, is the most common vitamin deficiency seen in individuals with alcohol use disorder. Chronic alcohol consumption can lead to decreased thiamine absorption and utilization, as well as poor dietary intake. Thiamine deficiency can result in serious neurological complications, such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, making it essential to address thiamine supplementation in individuals with alcohol use disorder.

5. Which of the following scenarios represents nursing malpractice?

• A. The nurse administers penicillin to a patient with a documented history of allergy to the drug. The patient experiences an allergic reaction and suffers cerebral damage due to anoxia.
• B. The nurse applies a hot water bottle or a heating pad to the abdomen of a patient with abdominal cramping.
• C. The nurse assists a patient out of bed with the bed locked in position; the patient slips and fractures his right humerus.
• D. The nurse administers the wrong medication to a patient, resulting in vomiting. This error is documented and reported to the physician and the nursing supervisor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Administering a drug to a patient with a known allergy, leading to severe harm such as an allergic reaction causing cerebral damage due to anoxia, constitutes nursing malpractice. In this scenario, the nurse failed to adhere to the standard of care by administering a medication that the patient was allergic to, resulting in serious harm, which is a clear example of malpractice in nursing.

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