Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the professional plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer.
• B. FACES pain scale.
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds.
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse in newborns is important to evaluate their cardiac function. The normal heart rate for a newborn is typically between 100-160 beats per minute. Auscultating the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds allows for an accurate assessment of the newborn's heart rate. This is a crucial component of the newborn assessment to ensure the baby's cardiovascular system is functioning within the expected range.

2. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?

• A. 4,500/mm³
• B. 7,000/mm³
• C. 10,000/mm³
• D. 25,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leukocytosis is defined as an increase in the total white blood cell count. A normal WBC count typically ranges from 4,500 to 10,000/mm³. A WBC count of 25,000/mm³, as indicated in choice D, is significantly higher than the normal range and clearly indicates leukocytosis.

3. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?

• A. A client who has a BMI of 30
• B. A female client who is postmenopausal
• C. A client who has a fractured femur
• D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.

4. What is the primary goal of performing a bed bath?

• A. To cleanse, refresh, and provide comfort to the client who must remain in bed
• B. To expose the necessary parts of the body
• C. To develop skills in bed bath
• D. To check the body temperature of the client in bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary goal of performing a bed bath is to cleanse, refresh, and provide comfort to clients who are unable to leave their bed. This helps maintain their hygiene, promotes skin health, and enhances their overall well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose is not to expose body parts but to provide hygiene and comfort. Choice C is incorrect as the main goal is client care, not skill development. Choice D is incorrect as checking body temperature is not the main purpose of a bed bath.

5. A client is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
• C. Dehydration is associated with gastroesophageal reflux.
• D. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dehydration can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and cause uterine irritability, potentially leading to preterm contractions. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of adequate hydration to reduce the risk of preterm labor. The statement 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor' directly addresses the client's condition and provides relevant information for their understanding and management of the situation.

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