Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary goal of performing a bed bath?

• A. To cleanse, refresh, and provide comfort to the client who must remain in bed
• B. To expose the necessary parts of the body
• C. To develop skills in bed bath
• D. To check the body temperature of the client in bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary goal of performing a bed bath is to cleanse, refresh, and provide comfort to clients who are unable to leave their bed. This helps maintain their hygiene, promotes skin health, and enhances their overall well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the primary purpose is not to expose body parts but to provide hygiene and comfort. Choice C is incorrect as the main goal is client care, not skill development. Choice D is incorrect as checking body temperature is not the main purpose of a bed bath.

2. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?

• A. Assessing clot formation potential
• B. Assessing bleeding risk
• C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
• D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.

3. What term refers to the manner of walking?

• A. Gait
• B. Range of motion
• C. Flexion and extension
• D. Hopping

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gait specifically refers to the manner in which a person walks. It encompasses the pattern, rhythm, and style of walking, making it the most appropriate term in this context. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, flexion and extension relate to bending and straightening movements at a joint, and hopping is a specific type of movement that involves jumping on one foot.

4. A charge nurse is recommending postpartum client discharge following a local disaster. Which of the following should the nurse recommend for discharge?

• A. A 42-year-old client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 166/110 mm Hg
• B. A 15-year-old client who delivered via emergency cesarean birth 1 day ago
• C. A client who received 2 units of packed RBCs 6 hr ago for a postpartum hemorrhage
• D. A client who delivered precipitously 36 hr ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate client to recommend for discharge following a local disaster in the postpartum unit is the one who delivered precipitously 36 hours ago and has a second-degree perineal laceration. This client's condition is stable enough for discharge, and the timing and extent of the perineal laceration are within expectations for a safe discharge. Clients with conditions such as preeclampsia, recent emergency cesarean birth, or recent administration of packed RBCs for postpartum hemorrhage require further monitoring and care before being considered for discharge.

5. A client is being assessed by a nurse who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Cool, moist skin
• D. Incisional pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chest pain is a critical finding postoperatively, especially after an arterial thrombectomy, as it could indicate complications like myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. It requires immediate attention and further evaluation. Muscle spasms, cool moist skin, and incisional pain are important to assess but not as urgent as chest pain in this scenario.

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