potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon the found in the kidney
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored

1. Potassium-sparing diuretics primarily affect which part of the kidney?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potassium-sparing diuretics exert their primary effects on the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney. By acting on this specific part of the nephron, these diuretics promote sodium excretion while sparing potassium, thus helping to maintain potassium levels in the body. This mechanism differs from other diuretics that may cause potassium loss as a side effect. Understanding the site of action of potassium-sparing diuretics is crucial in clinical practice for managing conditions like hypertension and edema where diuresis is necessary without the risk of hypokalemia.

2. A client has a prescription for ceftriaxone. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue ceftriaxone if a rash develops, as it could indicate an allergic reaction that needs to be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cough development, oral administration, and yellow urine are not typically associated with ceftriaxone use and are not critical information that the nurse needs to emphasize in this scenario.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.

4. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

5. What is the antidote for Heparin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protamine sulfate. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication used to prevent blood clots. In cases of overdose or excessive bleeding due to Heparin, protamine sulfate is administered as the specific antidote. Protamine sulfate works by neutralizing Heparin's anticoagulant activity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Narcan (Naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdose, Romazicon (Flumazenil) is used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose, and Naloxone is also used to reverse opioid overdose but is not the antidote for Heparin.

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