a nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time aptt greater than 15 times the expected reference range
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Nursing Elites

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1. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

2. When administering the drug senna to a patient, what must a health care provider inform the patient of?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Senna is a laxative used for short-term relief of constipation, not for long-term use. Choice A is incorrect because senna does not lower blood pressure or require combination with antihypertensives. Choice C is unrelated as there is no need to limit fiber intake with senna. Choice D is incorrect as orthostatic hypotension is not a common concern with senna use.

3. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin, and a healthcare provider is providing education. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tinnitus. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to report tinnitus, as it can be an indication of ototoxicity, an adverse effect associated with cisplatin therapy. Ototoxicity is damage to the inner ear structures that can lead to hearing loss, making it crucial for the client to report any early signs such as tinnitus to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in the context of cisplatin therapy. Nausea and constipation are common side effects of cisplatin but are not typically indicative of serious complications requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is not a typical side effect associated with cisplatin therapy and is less likely to be related to the medication.

4. When reviewing a client's health record, a healthcare professional notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should be identified as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by increasing the excretion of potassium in the urine. This potassium loss can result in lower-than-normal levels of potassium in the body, leading to hypokalemia.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

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