a nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time aptt greater than 15 times the expected reference range
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a hospitalized client who has an activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) greater than 1.5 times the expected reference range. Which of the following blood products should the healthcare professional prepare to transfuse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Fresh frozen plasma is the correct choice for a client with an elevated aPTT because it contains essential coagulation factors that can help correct coagulopathy and prevent bleeding. It is rich in clotting factors like fibrinogen, factors V and VIII, which are crucial in maintaining proper blood clotting function. Whole blood (Choice A) is not typically used to correct coagulopathy and is more suitable for situations requiring both volume and oxygen-carrying capacity. Platelets (Choice B) are indicated for thrombocytopenia, not for correcting coagulation factors. Packed red blood cells (Choice D) are used to increase oxygen-carrying capacity in cases of anemia, not for correcting coagulopathy.

2. While collecting data from a client taking Gemfibrozil, a nurse should identify which of the following assessment findings as an adverse reaction to the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jaundice is an adverse reaction that the nurse should identify when assessing a client taking Gemfibrozil. It is associated with liver impairment, which can be a side effect of this medication. Mental status changes and tremors are not typically associated with Gemfibrozil use. Pneumonia is not a common adverse reaction to this medication, and its occurrence is not directly linked to Gemfibrozil use.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional preparing to administer IV Hydromorphone to a client is to administer the medication over 5 minutes. This slow administration is crucial to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Administering the medication rapidly can lead to adverse effects. Option B, administering Naloxone prior to Hydromorphone, is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not as a routine pre-medication. Option C, assessing the client's blood pressure before administration, is important but not the immediate action to take to reduce adverse effects of Hydromorphone. Option D, injecting the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue, is incorrect as Hydromorphone is meant for intravenous administration for rapid onset of action.

4. An older adult client has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. The nurse should recognize that concurrent use of which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to toxicity. When given together, the digoxin dosage may need adjustment, and the nurse should closely monitor the client's digoxin levels to prevent toxicity symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and arrhythmias. The other choices, Phenytoin, Warfarin, and Aluminum hydroxide, do not significantly interact with Digoxin to cause toxicity. Phenytoin may reduce Digoxin levels, while Warfarin and Aluminum hydroxide have minimal interactions with Digoxin.

5. A client has a new prescription for Adalimumab for Rheumatoid Arthritis. Based on the route of administration of Adalimumab, which of the following should the nurse plan to monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Adalimumab is administered subcutaneously. Injection-site redness and swelling are common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the subcutaneous site for redness following the injection to assess for any potential issues or reactions.

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