ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following tests should the nurse tell the client to expect before beginning this medication?
- A. Skin test for allergy to the medication
- B. ECG to rule out cardiac dysrhythmias
- C. Mantoux test to rule out exposure to tuberculosis
- D. Liver function tests to assess risk for medication toxicity
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before starting Calcitonin-salmon, it is important to assess for any potential allergies as anaphylaxis can occur. A skin test is usually conducted to determine if the client is allergic to the medication. The nurse should also inquire about any previous allergies to fish, as Calcitonin-salmon is derived from salmon. Options B, C, and D are not necessary before initiating Calcitonin-salmon therapy. ECG is not directly related to this medication, Mantoux test is used to diagnose tuberculosis, and liver function tests are not specifically required before starting Calcitonin-salmon.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking Lithium for Bipolar Disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider immediately?
- A. Lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L
- B. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL should be reported to the provider immediately. While a lithium level of 1.0 mEq/L falls within the therapeutic range, a creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL could suggest early signs of kidney dysfunction, especially concerning in a client on long-term lithium therapy. It is crucial to monitor kidney function closely because lithium can be nephrotoxic over time. Elevated creatinine levels may indicate impaired kidney function and should prompt immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Potassium and sodium levels within normal range are not immediate concerns when compared to potential kidney issues.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Dantrolene to a client who has developed Malignant Hyperthermia during surgery. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Dilute the medication with sterile water and administer it rapidly.
- B. Store the medication in a refrigerator until use.
- C. Administer the medication through a large-bore IV catheter.
- D. Administer the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dantrolene should be administered through a large-bore IV catheter because it is highly irritating to tissues and can cause vein irritation or thrombophlebitis if administered through a small vein. Using a large-bore IV catheter helps to minimize the risk of tissue damage and ensures proper and safe administration of the medication in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diluting the medication with sterile water and administering it rapidly can lead to tissue damage, storing the medication in a refrigerator is not necessary, and administering the medication via an infusion pump over 60 minutes is not appropriate in emergency situations like Malignant Hyperthermia where rapid administration is crucial.
4. When a client has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, what adverse effect should they monitor for according to the nurse's instruction?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Anxiety
- C. Sedation
- D. Palpitations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can lead to sedation as an adverse effect. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness when taking this medication to prevent any potential harm. Monitoring for sedation is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated with Dextromethorphan use. While some individuals may experience gastrointestinal upset, central nervous system effects like sedation are more commonly observed.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?
- A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
- B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
- C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
- D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.
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