Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
• B. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
• D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed Digoxin should monitor their heart rate before each dose. This is essential to identify any potential bradycardia, defined as a heart rate below 60 bpm, which can be a side effect of Digoxin. Any significant changes in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-potassium foods can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition that can be exacerbated by Digoxin. Choice C is incorrect as taking Digoxin with a full glass of milk is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as black, tarry stools are not an expected side effect of Digoxin.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. Which of the following medications, when used concurrently with Digoxin, places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Verapamil
• C. Warfarin
• D. Aluminum hydroxide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to Digoxin toxicity. When these medications are used together, the client is at an increased risk. Phenytoin (Choice A) does not significantly impact digoxin levels. Warfarin (Choice C) and aluminum hydroxide (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the correct choice is Verapamil (Choice B) due to its potential to raise digoxin levels and cause toxicity.

3. A client is receiving daily doses of Oprelvekin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Absolute neutrophil count
• C. Platelet count
• D. Total white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the platelet count to determine the effectiveness of Oprelvekin. The expected outcome for this medication is a platelet count greater than 50,000/mm^3. Oprelvekin is a medication used to stimulate platelet production, making platelet count a crucial parameter to assess its effectiveness. Monitoring hemoglobin, absolute neutrophil count, or total white blood cell count is not specifically related to the action or effectiveness of Oprelvekin.

4. What is the classification of furosemide?

• A. Loop diuretic
• B. Anticoagulant
• C. Iron supplement
• D. Anticonvulsant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Furosemide is classified as a loop diuretic, not an anticoagulant, iron supplement, or anticonvulsant. Loop diuretics, like furosemide, act in the loop of Henle in the kidney to inhibit sodium and chloride reabsorption, leading to increased urine output. This mechanism makes them effective in treating conditions such as edema and hypertension. Therefore, the correct classification for furosemide is a loop diuretic (Choice A).

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes a flushing of the neck and tachycardia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Document that the client experienced an anaphylactic reaction to the medication.
• B. Change the IV infusion site.
• C. Decrease the infusion rate on the IV.
• D. Apply cold compresses to the neck area.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flushing and tachycardia are signs of Red Man Syndrome, which can be mitigated by decreasing the infusion rate.

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