Nursing Elites

1. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

2. What is the primary responsibility of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting?

• A. To provide direct patient care
• B. To manage healthcare facilities
• C. To oversee administrative tasks
• D. To conduct clinical research

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To oversee administrative tasks.' Nurse managers in healthcare settings are primarily responsible for managing the administrative aspects of a unit, ensuring smooth operations and efficiency. Choice A is incorrect because providing direct patient care is usually the responsibility of staff nurses, not nurse managers. Choice B is incorrect as managing healthcare facilities involves a broader scope of responsibilities beyond the role of a nurse manager. Choice D is also incorrect as conducting clinical research is typically not a primary responsibility of a nurse manager in a healthcare setting.

3. A manager is prioritizing the following issues. Of the following issues, which should be considered urgent and important?

• A. The manager of physical therapy calls and complains about inappropriate behaviors of one of the staff nurses with one of his therapists.
• B. A staff nurse reports a pattern of malfunctioning IV pumps on the unit during her current shift, resulting in overdosing of medications.
• C. One of the staff nurses, who would have been an extra nurse for the next shift, calls in sick.
• D. A small group of staff nurses request a meeting to discuss initiating a scheduling committee.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because patient safety is a critical concern in healthcare settings. Malfunctioning IV pumps leading to medication overdosing poses a direct threat to patient safety and must be addressed urgently. Choice A involves interpersonal issues between staff members which are important but can be addressed in a less urgent manner compared to patient safety concerns. Choice C, a staff nurse calling in sick, is important for staffing but can be managed through existing protocols. Choice D, initiating a scheduling committee, is a routine operational matter that can be addressed at a later time and does not pose an immediate risk to patient safety.

4. What is a benefit of effective delegation?

• A. It increases the manager's workload
• B. It allows the manager to make all the decisions
• C. It empowers staff to make decisions
• D. It decreases staff involvement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It empowers staff to make decisions.' Effective delegation involves entrusting tasks and decisions to staff, which not only lightens the manager's load but also empowers employees, enhancing their skills and confidence. Choice A is incorrect because effective delegation should reduce the manager's workload by distributing tasks appropriately. Choice B is incorrect as effective delegation involves empowering staff to make decisions rather than the manager making all decisions. Choice D is incorrect as effective delegation actually increases staff involvement by giving them more responsibilities and decision-making power.

5. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for a follow-up visit in the clinic several months from now. Which test will the nurse schedule to evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for the patient?

• A. Urine dipstick for glucose
• B. Oral glucose tolerance test
• C. Fasting blood glucose level
• D. Glycosylated hemoglobin level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Glycosylated hemoglobin level. Glycosylated hemoglobin, also known as hemoglobin A1c, provides a long-term indicator of blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. It is a valuable tool in assessing the effectiveness of diabetes treatment because it reflects average blood sugar levels during this period. Choices A, B, and C are not as effective for evaluating long-term glucose control. Urine dipstick for glucose only provides a snapshot of glucose levels at the time of testing, oral glucose tolerance test evaluates how the body processes glucose after drinking a sugary solution, and fasting blood glucose level gives a point-in-time measurement of glucose levels after fasting, but they do not reflect the overall glucose control over several months.

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