Nursing Elites

1. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

2. Which of the following is a key principle of the patient-centered care model?

• A. Healthcare provider satisfaction
• B. Cost reduction
• C. Patient autonomy
• D. Provider convenience

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Patient autonomy. Patient-centered care focuses on respecting and responding to patient preferences and needs, making patient autonomy a key principle. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the patient-centered care model prioritizes the patient's well-being and involvement in decision-making over healthcare provider satisfaction, cost reduction, or provider convenience.

3. 1. Which patient action indicates good understanding of the nurse�s teaching about administration of aspart (NovoLog) insulin?

• A. The patient avoids injecting the insulin into the upper abdominal area
• B. The patient cleans the skin with soap and water before insulin administration.
• C. The patient stores the insulin in the freezer after administering the prescribed dose.
• D. The patient pushes the plunger down while removing the syringe from the injection site

Correct answer: B

Rationale:

4. Many patient classification systems have some type of shortcoming. Among these are:

• A. The client's condition changes before the next shift.
• B. The staffing needs are predicted on a short-term basis.
• C. The potential admissions cannot be accounted for.
• D. The staffing mix changes because of illness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Patient classification systems have limitations in accounting for changes in a client's condition, unexpected influx of new admissions, and changes in staffing due to illness. These systems often focus on short-term staffing needs rather than utilizing demand management, which considers client outcomes to predict staffing needs over a longer period. Not being able to account for potential admissions can lead to challenges in effectively managing staff allocation and resources. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific limitation of patient classification systems related to accounting for potential admissions.

5. Which of the following is NOT considered a withdrawal behavior?

• A. Turnover
• B. Strategies
• C. Stress
• D. Punctuality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Strategies.' Withdrawal behaviors are actions employees take to mentally escape the work environment. Turnover, stress, and punctuality are examples of withdrawal behaviors. Turnover refers to employees leaving the workplace, stress leads to disengagement, and lack of punctuality can indicate disinterest or withdrawal. 'Strategies' do not fit the definition of withdrawal behaviors, making it the correct answer.

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