a nurse manager is working on the personnel budget for the year the manager anticipates she will need to replace 832 benefit hours for the year how ma
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. Which of the following best describes intrinsic values?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Intrinsic values refer to basic needs for sustaining life, such as food, water, shelter, and safety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because intrinsic values are not abstract ideas, qualities important in private lives, or qualities important for nurses to have.

3. What is the primary focus of a patient-centered care model?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary focus of a patient-centered care model is on patient satisfaction. This approach emphasizes providing care that is personalized to meet the unique needs and preferences of each patient, fostering a collaborative and respectful partnership between healthcare providers and patients to achieve better health outcomes. While cost reduction (choice A) can be a byproduct of improved outcomes, it is not the primary focus. Healthcare provider satisfaction (choice B) is important but not the primary focus in patient-centered care. Quality assurance (choice D) is crucial but is secondary to patient satisfaction in a patient-centered care model.

4. An environment that rewards good __________ is the goal in a work environment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An environment that rewards good performance is the goal in a work environment as it promotes productivity and motivation among employees. Rewarding performance leads to improved outcomes and helps in achieving organizational objectives. Choice B, 'Turnover,' is incorrect as turnover refers to the rate at which employees leave an organization, and it is not a goal to be rewarded. Choice C, 'Strategies,' does not directly relate to rewarding good behavior but rather focuses on plans or approaches to achieve goals. Choice D, 'Stress,' is not something that should be rewarded in a work environment; instead, it should be managed and reduced to promote employee well-being.

5. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Physical therapy for stroke rehabilitation. Tertiary prevention aims to prevent complications and manage existing conditions to improve the quality of life. Administering childhood vaccinations (A) is an example of primary prevention to prevent the onset of diseases. Chemotherapy for cancer treatment (B) is a form of secondary prevention focusing on early detection and treatment to stop the progression of the disease. Routine screening for hypertension (C) is also a form of secondary prevention to detect and treat hypertension early, preventing further complications.

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