a nurse manager is working on the personnel budget for the year the manager anticipates she will need to replace 832 benefit hours for the year how ma
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023

1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours ÷ 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.

2. An RN�s current patient and family have presented her with an ethical dilemma. What is the first step the RN should take to find a workable solution to the problem?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The first step the RN should take to find a workable solution to the problem is assessment.

3. A client with limited mobility in their lower extremities is at risk for skin breakdown. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increase the client's intake of carbohydrates. Adequate nutrition, including carbohydrates, is essential for tissue repair and preventing skin breakdown. Placing the client in high-Fowler's position (choice A) may help with respiratory function but does not directly prevent skin breakdown. Massaging areas of darker skin (choice C) can cause further damage to the skin. Using a trapeze bar (choice D) may assist with changing positions but does not directly address skin breakdown prevention.

4. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering vaccinations is indeed an example of a primary prevention strategy. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it occurs by targeting the entire population or specific high-risk groups. Vaccinations help prevent the initial development of a disease by enhancing immunity against specific pathogens. Choices B, C, and D are not examples of primary prevention strategies. Performing a surgical procedure (Choice B) is a treatment intervention, not a preventive measure. Teaching healthy lifestyle choices (Choice C) falls under health promotion and education, which is more aligned with secondary prevention. Prescribing medication (Choice D) is typically associated with treatment rather than preventing the initial onset of a disease.

5. After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL (hypoglycemia) needs immediate attention. Hypoglycemia is an emergency situation that requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse effects such as seizures or loss of consciousness. Assessing and managing this patient first is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening situations requiring urgent intervention like severe hypoglycemia does. While a high hemoglobin A1C level (choice A), an abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result (choice C), and acute abdominal pain (choice D) are important issues, they do not pose an immediate threat to the patient's life compared to severe hypoglycemia.

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