ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2023
1. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?
- A. 0.40 FTEs
- B. 17.0 FTEs
- C. 0.05 FTEs
- D. 1.0 FTEs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours รท 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.
2. Which of the following strategies is most effective for improving staff morale?
- A. Increasing workload
- B. Increasing salaries
- C. Providing feedback
- D. Offering incentives
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Providing feedback is the most effective strategy for improving staff morale. Feedback helps employees understand their performance, areas of improvement, and areas of strength, fostering a sense of recognition and growth. Increasing workload (choice A) can lead to burnout and decreased morale. While increasing salaries (choice B) and offering incentives (choice D) can be motivating, they may not address underlying issues or provide the same level of personal development and recognition that feedback offers.
3. A client experiences an air emboli, resulting in a stroke, during an IV start. This can be classified as which type of risk?
- A. Patient dissatisfaction
- B. Medical-legal incident
- C. Medication error
- D. Diagnostic procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Diagnostic procedure.' When a client experiences an air emboli leading to a stroke during an IV start, it falls under the category of a diagnostic procedure risk. This incident occurred during a procedure intended for diagnosis or evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Patient dissatisfaction refers to a client's discontent with care, service, or outcomes; a medical-legal incident involves legal issues related to healthcare practices; and a medication error pertains to mistakes in medication administration.
4. Organizations are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. This defines which of the following theories?
- A. Contingency theory
- B. Closed system theory
- C. Open system theory
- D. Chaos theory
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Chaos theory. Chaos theory is characterized by organizations that are made up of intertwined links and diversified choices that generate unanticipated consequences. Contingency theory (choice A) is based on the idea that there is no one best way to organize and manage a corporation. Closed system theory (choice B) refers to systems that are closed off from the outside environment and do not interact with it. Open system theory (choice C) views organizations as open systems that interact with their external environment.
5. Which of the following conditions would be well suited to the use of a nursing critical pathway?
- A. Foreign object in the ear
- B. Fever of unknown origin
- C. Hip replacement surgery
- D. Bacterial infection acquired in a foreign country
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A critical pathway is designed to track a patient's progress through a specific timeline, including assessments, interventions, treatments, and outcomes. Hip replacement surgery is well suited for a nursing critical pathway because it has a defined timeline with specific interventions and treatments aimed at achieving optimal functioning. Choices A, B, and D do not typically follow a structured timeline with predetermined interventions and outcomes, making them less suitable for a critical pathway.
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