ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?
- A. Conflict suppression
- B. Resolution aftermath
- C. Antecedent conditions
- D. Manifest behavior
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.
2. The nurse determines a need for additional instruction when the patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes says which of the following?
- A. �I can have an occasional alcoholic drink if I include it in my meal plan.�
- B. �I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH insulin.�
- C. �I can choose any foods, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the calories.�
- D. �I will eat something at meal times to prevent hypoglycemia, even if I am not hungry.�
Correct answer: C
Rationale:
3. A client with frequent tonic-clonic seizures is being admitted. What action should the nurse add to the client's plan of care?
- A. Ensure blankets are placed on all four sides of the bed.
- B. Refrain from using restraints during seizure activity.
- C. Position the client laterally during seizure activity.
- D. Have a tongue depressor available at the client's bedside.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should add to the client's plan of care is to have a tongue depressor available at the client's bedside. This is important during a seizure to prevent the client from biting their tongue. Placing the client laterally helps maintain a clear airway and prevents aspiration, making choice C a good practice during seizure activity. Using restraints during a seizure can cause injuries and should be avoided, making choice B incorrect. Wrapping blankets around all four sides of the bed is unnecessary for seizure management and does not contribute to the client's safety during a seizure, making choice A incorrect.
4. What is the primary focus of strategic planning in healthcare organizations?
- A. Financial performance
- B. Staff satisfaction
- C. Patient care quality
- D. Regulatory compliance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In healthcare organizations, the primary focus of strategic planning is to enhance patient care quality. While financial performance, staff satisfaction, and regulatory compliance are essential aspects in healthcare management, they are secondary to the overarching goal of providing high-quality care to patients. Financial performance ensures sustainability, staff satisfaction impacts productivity and retention, and regulatory compliance maintains legal standards. However, without a core focus on improving patient care quality, the strategic planning efforts may not align with the primary mission of healthcare organizations.
5. A 34-year-old has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes. The nurse will discuss the need to schedule a dilated eye exam
- A. every 2 years
- B. as soon as possible
- C. when the patient is 39 years old
- D. within the first year after diagnosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'B' - as soon as possible. Patients with type 2 diabetes should have a dilated eye exam shortly after diagnosis to check for any signs of diabetic retinopathy, a common complication of diabetes. Waiting for 2 years (choice A) may lead to missing early signs of eye damage. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific age requirement mentioned for the eye exam. Choice D is also incorrect because early detection and intervention are crucial in diabetic eye disease.
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