in dealing with conflict the nurse manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect according to filey what is this
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Strategies to advance your career and opportunities available in your first job can coexist. Identify factors that will help you prioritize these opportunities to fulfill your goals. (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Self-actualization involves assessing your values and lifestyle, which is crucial for prioritizing opportunities that align with your goals. This process helps you understand yourself better and make informed decisions to advance your career. Choice B is incorrect because focusing solely on salary may not necessarily lead to career growth and fulfillment. Choice C is about teamwork skills, which are important but not directly related to prioritizing career opportunities. Choice D is about seeking opinions from others, which may not always align with your personal goals and aspirations.

3. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who presents with poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa requires immediate attention. These signs indicate severe dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances, which can lead to serious complications. Assessing this patient first allows for prompt intervention and monitoring to stabilize their condition. Choice A is less urgent as the patient has possible dawn phenomenon, which is a common early-morning rise in blood glucose levels. Choice B, with a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL, indicates hyperglycemia but does not present with signs of severe dehydration like the patient in choice C. Choice D, with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, is important but not as urgent as addressing severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of terminal cancer. Which of the following statements by the client should indicate to the nurse that the client is ready to hear information regarding palliative care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because the client expressing a desire to know about measures available to keep comfortable indicates readiness for palliative care. Palliative care focuses on providing comfort, symptom management, and improving the quality of life for patients with serious illnesses such as terminal cancer. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A indicates a desire for chemotherapy to cure the cancer, which does not align with palliative care goals. Choice B expresses a wish to end the situation quickly, which may not be in line with palliative care that focuses on comfort and quality of life. Choice D shows optimism about a full recovery, which may not be realistic for a client with terminal cancer who needs palliative care.

5. Which information is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider before a patient with type 2 diabetes is prepared for a coronary angiogram?

Correct answer: C

Rationale:

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