ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?
- A. Conflict suppression
- B. Resolution aftermath
- C. Antecedent conditions
- D. Manifest behavior
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.
2. While caring for a client with tuberculosis, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene.
- B. Wear a surgical mask when providing client care.
- C. Limit each visitor to 2-hour increments.
- D. Wear gloves when assisting the client with oral care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with tuberculosis is to use antimicrobial sanitizer for hand hygiene. Tuberculosis is primarily spread through the air, so wearing a surgical mask when providing care (choice B) would be more appropriate for diseases transmitted via droplets. Limiting visitors (choice C) and wearing gloves for oral care (choice D) are important infection control measures but are not specifically tailored to tuberculosis transmission.
3. What is the main focus of the Magnet Recognition Program?
- A. Nurse satisfaction
- B. Patient outcomes
- C. Financial performance
- D. Nursing excellence
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The main focus of the Magnet Recognition Program is nursing excellence. While nurse satisfaction and patient outcomes are important aspects influenced by the program, the primary goal is to recognize and promote nursing excellence. Financial performance is not the main focus of this program.
4. Which of the following statements about time management is true?
- A. Time management is not important in nursing
- B. Writing goals will increase stress
- C. Effective time management reduces stress
- D. Setting goals is a time waster
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Effective time management reduces stress. Proper time management allows nurses to prioritize tasks, allocate sufficient time for each activity, and reduce the feeling of being overwhelmed. This, in turn, helps in reducing stress levels and increasing productivity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Time management is crucial in nursing to ensure efficient patient care and task completion. Writing goals helps in providing direction and motivation, reducing stress rather than increasing it. Setting goals is not a time waster; it is a fundamental aspect of effective time management.
5. A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?
- A. 0.40 FTEs
- B. 17.0 FTEs
- C. 0.05 FTEs
- D. 1.0 FTEs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the number of Full-Time Equivalents (FTEs) needed for replacement, divide the number of benefit hours (832) by the standard number of hours in a full-time work year (2,080). Therefore, 832 benefit hours รท 2,080 = 0.4 FTEs, which is equivalent to 0.40 FTEs. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is a significantly high number that does not align with the calculation. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is incorrect because it is too low for the given number of benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it represents a full-time position, which is not the correct calculation for replacing 832 benefit hours.
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