Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Which of the following is the preferable alternative to firing an employee?

• A. Voluntary resignation
• B. Training
• C. Confrontation
• D. Coaching

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The preferable alternative to firing an employee is voluntary resignation. When an employee voluntarily resigns, it allows them to leave on their terms, maintaining their dignity and possibly avoiding negative consequences associated with being fired. Training, confrontation, and coaching are not alternatives to firing but rather methods that can be used to address performance or behavior issues before resorting to termination.

3. What is the main concern with collective bargaining?

• A. Create tension among nurses.
• B. Reform health care.
• C. Secure economic security.
• D. Unite the nurses.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main concern with collective bargaining is that it can create tension among nurses. The bargaining process may lead to divisions between staff nurses and management, rather than uniting them. This tension can arise from differing priorities, goals, or interests between the two groups, potentially impacting the effectiveness of the bargaining process. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the primary focus of the concern is on the potential negative impact on nurse relationships, not on reforming healthcare, ensuring economic security, or uniting nurses.

4. What is the main focus of a clinical governance framework?

• A. Financial performance
• B. Regulatory compliance
• C. Patient care quality
• D. Staff satisfaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main focus of a clinical governance framework is patient care quality. This framework is designed to ensure that patient care is safe, effective, and patient-centered. Choice A, financial performance, is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, although financial aspects may be considered. Choice B, regulatory compliance, is important but not the primary focus of a clinical governance framework. Choice D, staff satisfaction, is also important but is not the main focus of a clinical governance framework, which primarily centers around patient care quality.

5. A nurse is preparing to apply a dressing for a client who has a stage 2 pressure injury. Which of the following types of dressing should the nurse use?

• A. Hydrocolloid
• B. Transparent
• C. Gauze
• D. Alginate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hydrocolloid. For a stage 2 pressure injury, a hydrocolloid dressing is recommended. Hydrocolloid dressings provide a moist environment that promotes healing and is effective for wounds with moderate exudate. Choice B (Transparent) is not typically used for stage 2 pressure injuries as it is more suitable for superficial wounds. Choice C (Gauze) is not ideal for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can adhere to the wound bed and cause trauma upon removal. Choice D (Alginate) is more appropriate for wounds with heavy exudate, not typically seen in stage 2 pressure injuries.

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