Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Selye's stress theory explains that a person stressed for long periods of time will:

• A. Face exhaustion and be more susceptible to illnesses.
• B. Become fatigued and become stronger.
• C. Become more assertive.
• D. Safety needs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Selye's stress theory posits that individuals experiencing prolonged stress are likely to face exhaustion and become more susceptible to illnesses. This is because the body's response to chronic stress can lead to physical and psychological depletion, increasing the risk of health problems. Choice B is incorrect as becoming stronger is not a typical outcome of prolonged stress according to Selye's theory. Choice C, becoming more assertive, is not directly related to the physical implications of chronic stress. Choice D, safety needs, is unrelated to Selye's stress theory and does not reflect the expected outcomes of prolonged stress.

3. In the traditional rating scale, what is the time period typically used for evaluation?

• A. Twelve months
• B. Six months
• C. Three months
• D. One month

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the traditional rating scale, evaluations are typically conducted over a 12-month period. This duration allows for a comprehensive assessment of the employee's performance and progress throughout the year, capturing a broader range of experiences and accomplishments to provide a more holistic evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the standard practice of conducting annual evaluations in a traditional rating scale setting.

4. Which of the following is a common characteristic of a high reliability organization (HRO)?

• A. Flexibility
• B. Reluctance to simplify
• C. Preoccupation with failure
• D. Deference to expertise

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A common characteristic of a high reliability organization (HRO) is a preoccupation with failure. HROs focus on identifying and addressing potential failure points to prevent errors and maintain high levels of safety and reliability. This mindset helps them anticipate and mitigate risks proactively, leading to better outcomes and performance. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While flexibility, reluctance to simplify, and deference to expertise may be important in various contexts, they are not the primary defining characteristics of a high reliability organization. The core focus of HROs is on continuously monitoring for potential failures and working to prevent them.

5. The ANA is a registered labor organization, but it does not engage in direct __________.

• A. Empower union affiliation
• B. Reward union affiliation
• C. Encourage union affiliation
• D. Collective bargaining

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Collective bargaining.' The American Nurses Association is a registered labor organization, but it does not engage in direct collective bargaining. The actual certification of units, negotiation of contracts, and administration of contracts is conducted by the state nurses associations (SNAs). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as the ANA's role does not involve empowering, rewarding, or encouraging union affiliation directly.

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