ATI RN
ATI Leadership Proctored Exam 2019
1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?
- A. Conflict suppression
- B. Resolution aftermath
- C. Antecedent conditions
- D. Manifest behavior
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.
2. What is a benefit of effective delegation?
- A. It increases the manager's workload
- B. It allows the manager to make all the decisions
- C. It empowers staff to make decisions
- D. It decreases staff involvement
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'It empowers staff to make decisions.' Effective delegation involves entrusting tasks and decisions to staff, which not only lightens the manager's load but also empowers employees, enhancing their skills and confidence. Choice A is incorrect because effective delegation should reduce the manager's workload by distributing tasks appropriately. Choice B is incorrect as effective delegation involves empowering staff to make decisions rather than the manager making all decisions. Choice D is incorrect as effective delegation actually increases staff involvement by giving them more responsibilities and decision-making power.
3. In the grievance process, a nurse disagrees with statements made by a physician about performance and talks to the nurse manager. Which step in the process is this?
- A. First
- B. Second
- C. Third
- D. Fourth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: First. In the grievance process, the initial step involves the nurse talking to the nurse manager to address the issue informally. Subsequently, step two entails filing a written appeal to the director of nursing or designee. Step three involves a formal meeting with the employee, agent, grievance chairperson, nursing administrator, and director of human resources. The final step, step four, is arbitration, which is initiated when no mutually acceptable solutions can be reached by the involved parties. Therefore, the nurse talking to the nurse manager about the disagreement is the first step in the grievance process.
4. Which of the following best describes the concept of holistic nursing?
- A. An approach that integrates the mind, body, and spirit in patient care
- B. A method that focuses solely on physical health
- C. A practice that considers only the patient's physical condition
- D. A framework for improving hospital administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'An approach that integrates the mind, body, and spirit in patient care.' Holistic nursing is a comprehensive approach that considers the whole person, including their physical, emotional, social, and spiritual well-being. Choice B is incorrect because holistic nursing goes beyond just physical health. Choice C is incorrect because holistic nursing considers various aspects of the patient, not just the physical condition. Choice D is incorrect because holistic nursing is focused on patient care and well-being, not hospital administration.
5. A client requires a 24-hr urine collection. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I had a bowel movement, but I was able to save the urine.''
- B. ''I have a specimen in the bathroom from about 30 minutes ago.''
- C. ''I drink a lot, so I will fill up the bottle and complete the test quickly.''
- D. ''I flushed what I urinated at 7:00 a.m. and have saved all urine since.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Option C demonstrates an understanding of the need to collect urine over 24 hours. The client's statement shows awareness that increased fluid intake will help in filling up the collection bottle quickly, which is essential for an accurate test result. This choice reflects the correct understanding of the teaching. Options A, B, and D do not reflect the necessary comprehension for a 24-hr urine collection process. Option A involves a bowel movement, which is not relevant to a urine collection. Option B only mentions a specimen from 30 minutes ago, not over a 24-hour period. Option D indicates flushing urine, which contradicts the idea of saving all urine for the test.
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