Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. Which of the following are NOT outcomes of a job analysis? (EXCEPT)

• A. Job specification
• B. Job evaluation
• C. Job description
• D. Job performance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Job description is actually one of the key outcomes of a job analysis. A job description details the duties, responsibilities, and requirements of a specific job role. Job specification, job evaluation, and job performance are not outcomes of a job analysis. Job specification refers to the specific qualifications and skills required for a job, job evaluation involves determining the relative worth of different jobs within an organization, and job performance relates to how well an employee is executing their job duties.

3. A registered nurse (RN) administered a patient’s morning insulin as the breakfast tray arrived at 0800. The RN performed a complete assessment at the same time. Then, the RN got busy with her other patients and did not check on the patient until 1400. At that time, she found the patient unresponsive with a blood glucose of 23. Both the breakfast and lunch tray were at the bedside untouched. Which of the following could the RN be charged with?

• A. Quasi-intentional tort
• B. Misdemeanor
• C. Negligence
• D. Juvenile offense

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Negligence is the failure to act in a reasonable, ordinary, and prudent manner, causing harm to someone who is owed the duty to care.

4. Two RNs are discussing the benefits of professional liability insurance. Which of the following is a reason for an RN to have a professional liability insurance policy?

• A. No expenses are involved in frivolous lawsuits.
• B. If a nurse is found guilty of malpractice, the institution cannot sue the nurse.
• C. Liability policies may also cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations.
• D. Only doctors are sued for malpractice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Liability policies can cover charges of libel, slander, assault, and HIPAA violations, in addition to malpractice claims. Choice A is incorrect as there are expenses involved in frivolous lawsuits. Choice B is incorrect because institutions can sue nurses found guilty of malpractice. Choice D is incorrect as nurses, not just doctors, can be sued for malpractice.

5. Which of the following best describes the role of an informatics nurse specialist?

• A. Managing electronic health records
• B. Providing technical support
• C. Educating nursing staff
• D. Improving patient care through technology

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An informatics nurse specialist focuses on improving patient care through technology by implementing, optimizing, and leveraging healthcare information systems. While managing electronic health records and providing technical support may be part of their responsibilities, the primary goal is to enhance patient outcomes and healthcare delivery through the strategic use of technology. Educating nursing staff, although important, is typically not the core role of an informatics nurse specialist.

Similar Questions