Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. What is typically the first sign that a healthcare professional with a substance abuse problem will exhibit?

• A. Avoidance
• B. Bargaining
• C. Denial
• D. Regression

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Denial. When healthcare professionals have substance abuse problems, denial is often the initial sign they exhibit. Denial involves minimizing or refusing to acknowledge the issue, making it difficult to recognize and address the substance abuse problem. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoidance, bargaining, and regression are not typically the first signs displayed by healthcare professionals with substance abuse problems. By identifying denial early on, healthcare professionals can take the necessary steps to seek help and overcome substance abuse issues.

3. A diabetic patient who has reported burning foot pain at night receives a new prescription. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about amitriptyline (Elavil)?

• A. Amitriptyline decreases the depression caused by your foot pain.
• B. Amitriptyline helps prevent transmission of pain impulses to the brain.
• C. Amitriptyline corrects some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain.
• D. Amitriptyline improves sleep and reduces awareness of nighttime pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, which helps in reducing the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. Choice A is incorrect because amitriptyline primarily works on pain transmission rather than directly on depression. Choice C is inaccurate as amitriptyline's mechanism of action is not related to correcting blood vessel changes. Choice D is partially true as amitriptyline can improve sleep, but the primary mechanism related to pain relief is by preventing pain impulses from reaching the brain.

4. One reason for conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is:

• A. It is needed to protect the organization from legal actions.
• B. It is required after a strenuous interview.
• C. It is mandated by law.
• D. It is necessary to screen for disabilities that may impact employment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting a comprehensive medical exam on an applicant is crucial to protect the organization from legal actions. This examination helps ensure that the applicant meets the health standards required for the job, reducing the risk of potential liabilities for the organization related to health issues that may arise during employment. Choice B is incorrect because the exam is not a follow-up to a strenuous interview. Choice C is incorrect as not all comprehensive medical exams are mandated by law; they are often part of an organization's policy. Choice D is incorrect as the primary goal of the exam is to assess the applicant's health status in relation to the job requirements, not to screen for disabilities.

5. A 28-year-old male patient with type 1 diabetes reports how he manages his exercise and glucose control. Which behavior indicates that the nurse should implement additional teaching?

• A. The patient always carries hard candies when engaging in exercise.
• B. The patient goes for a vigorous walk when his glucose is 200 mg/dL.
• C. The patient has a peanut butter sandwich before going for a bicycle ride.
• D. The patient increases daily exercise when ketones are present in the urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because increasing exercise when ketones are present in the urine is inappropriate and potentially dangerous for a patient with type 1 diabetes. This behavior can worsen the ketosis and lead to further complications. Choices A, B, and C demonstrate appropriate self-management strategies for a patient with type 1 diabetes. Carrying hard candies during exercise can help prevent hypoglycemia, going for a walk with a glucose level of 200 mg/dL can help lower blood sugar, and having a snack before physical activity can provide necessary energy.

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