Nursing Elites

1. In dealing with conflict, the manager knows that feelings or perceptions about the situation will have an effect. According to Filey, what is this effect known as?

• A. Conflict suppression
• B. Resolution aftermath
• C. Antecedent conditions
• D. Manifest behavior

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Feelings or perceptions about the situation initiate behavior, known as manifest behavior. Antecedent conditions refer to preexisting conditions that may have led to the conflict but are not the immediate effect of feelings or perceptions. Resolution aftermath pertains to the consequences or outcomes following conflict resolution. Conflict suppression refers to the action of suppressing conflict without addressing its root causes, which is a subsequent step after the manifestation of behavior.

2. When someone is consistently late for work due to unreliable transportation, this is known as which type of barrier?

• A. Attendance
• B. Voluntary
• C. Motivation
• D. Involuntary

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Attendance.' In this scenario, the nurse being late for work due to unreliable transportation is an example of an attendance barrier. This type of barrier refers to factors that affect an individual's ability to be present at work on time, such as transportation issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because voluntary barriers are ones that individuals choose to impose on themselves, motivation barriers relate to lacking the drive to perform a task, and involuntary barriers are obstacles beyond one's control.

3. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy in public health?

• A. Screening for diabetes
• B. Vaccination programs
• C. Emergency response planning
• D. Chronic disease management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Vaccination programs are considered a primary prevention strategy in public health because they aim to prevent the occurrence of diseases before they occur. Screening for diabetes (choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy that aims to detect and treat the disease early. Emergency response planning (choice C) is more focused on preparedness and response rather than preventing the initial occurrence of health issues. Chronic disease management (choice D) involves treating and controlling diseases that have already developed, making it a tertiary prevention strategy rather than primary.

4. Which of the following best describes the role of an informatics nurse specialist?

• A. Managing electronic health records
• B. Providing technical support
• C. Educating nursing staff
• D. Improving patient care through technology

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An informatics nurse specialist focuses on improving patient care through technology by implementing, optimizing, and leveraging healthcare information systems. While managing electronic health records and providing technical support may be part of their responsibilities, the primary goal is to enhance patient outcomes and healthcare delivery through the strategic use of technology. Educating nursing staff, although important, is typically not the core role of an informatics nurse specialist.

5. A 26-year-old patient with diabetes rides a bicycle to and from work every day. Which site should the nurse teach the patient to administer the morning insulin?

• A. Thigh
• B. Buttock
• C. Abdomen
• D. Upper arm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is the abdomen. When a patient engages in physical activities like riding a bicycle, the abdomen is a suitable site for insulin administration due to the consistent absorption rate. The subcutaneous tissue in the abdomen allows for more predictable insulin absorption compared to other sites. The thigh is also a common site for insulin injection but may not be ideal for this patient due to the physical activity involved. The buttock and upper arm are not preferred sites for insulin injection as they can have variable absorption rates and may not be as convenient for self-administration.

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