Nursing Elites

1. On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?

• A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
• B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
• C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
• D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.

2. A patient is prescribed tadalafil (Cialis) for erectile dysfunction. What condition would contraindicate the use of this medication?

• A. History of hypertension
• B. Use of nitrates
• C. Use of antihypertensive medications
• D. History of peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of nitrates.' Tadalafil (Cialis) is contraindicated in patients using nitrates due to the risk of severe hypotension. Nitrates and tadalafil both cause vasodilation, leading to a synergistic effect that can result in a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a history of hypertension, the use of antihypertensive medications, and a history of peptic ulcer disease are not direct contraindications for tadalafil use.

3. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?

• A. Right lower quadrant cramping
• B. Severe bloody diarrhea
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Mostly affects the rectum

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.

4. A 30-year-old woman presents with joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

• A. Rheumatoid arthritis
• B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
• C. Psoriatic arthritis
• D. Dermatomyositis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic lupus erythematosus. Joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity are classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus. Choice A, Rheumatoid arthritis, is incorrect as it typically presents with symmetric joint involvement and morning stiffness. Psoriatic arthritis (Choice C) is characterized by joint pain associated with psoriasis, which is not described in the case. Dermatomyositis (Choice D) presents with muscle weakness, skin rash, and elevated muscle enzymes, different from the symptoms presented in the case.

5. Abrupt withdrawal or discontinuation of prednisone can cause:

• A. adrenal crisis.
• B. hypercortisolism.
• C. ACTH stimulation.
• D. thyroid crisis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: adrenal crisis. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, resulting in adrenal crisis. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that suppresses the adrenal glands' ability to produce cortisol. Abrupt withdrawal can cause a sudden drop in cortisol levels, leading to adrenal crisis with symptoms like fatigue, weakness, abdominal pain, and potentially life-threatening low blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypercortisolism refers to excess cortisol levels, ACTH stimulation would not result from prednisone withdrawal, and thyroid crisis is not directly related to corticosteroid discontinuation.

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