ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology
1. On the advice of his brother, a 53-year-old man has made an appointment to request a prescription for Viagra. The nurse who works at the clinic is reviewing the man's medical history and would recognize what health problem as being prohibitive to this treatment?
- A. Type 2 diabetes, treated with metformin
- B. Hypercholesterolemia, treated with simvastatin
- C. Angina, treated with nitroglycerin
- D. Hypertension, treated with metoprolol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is contraindicated with Viagra due to their combined effects on lowering blood pressure, which can result in a severe drop and potentially life-threatening complications. Using both medications together can lead to hypotension, putting the patient at risk. Therefore, the presence of angina treated with nitroglycerin would make prescribing Viagra unsafe. Choices A, B, and D are not directly contraindicated with Viagra and can be managed concurrently with this treatment.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will be taking sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following should the nurse include in the instructions?
- A. Take this medication 1 hour before sexual activity.
- B. Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.
- C. Seek immediate medical attention if you experience vision or hearing loss.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do not take more than one dose in a 24-hour period.' It is essential for the nurse to emphasize this instruction to prevent potential adverse effects from taking multiple doses of sildenafil. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil should be taken approximately 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is important but not the priority; while vision or hearing loss are potential serious side effects of sildenafil, the immediate concern should be focused on dose frequency. Choice D is incorrect as sildenafil can be taken with or without food.
3. A 70-year-old woman has difficulty with driving, and she has been frequently getting lost. Her husband said she has also been acting strangely and seems to want to sleep a lot. He said the other night she kept saying she was seeing animals such as lions in her room. He says her memory is not too bad, but he is very concerned about her health. Physical examination reveals an alert woman with stable vital signs. Bradykinesia and limb rigidity are noted. These findings are consistent with:
- A. Alzheimer's disease.
- B. vascular dementia.
- C. dementia with Lewy bodies.
- D. frontotemporal dementia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB). Hallucinations, parkinsonian symptoms (like bradykinesia and limb rigidity), and fluctuating cognition are characteristic of DLB. Alzheimer's disease (Choice A) typically presents with memory loss as a prominent feature. Vascular dementia (Choice B) is associated with a history of strokes and step-wise cognitive decline. Frontotemporal dementia (Choice D) often presents with changes in behavior and personality rather than the parkinsonian symptoms seen in this case.
4. A 22-year-old woman began using oral contraceptives several months ago and has presented for an appointment to discuss recent worrisome changes in her health status. Which of the following changes in the woman's health may the nurse potentially attribute to the use of oral contraceptives?
- A. Fatigue
- B. Frequent high blood pressure readings
- C. Frequent headaches without aura
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fatigue. Oral contraceptives can sometimes cause fatigue as a side effect. Frequent high blood pressure readings and frequent headaches without aura are less likely to be directly related to the use of oral contraceptives. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of oral contraceptives but are not the changes typically associated with liver function affecting hormone metabolism as in the case of hepatitis C infection.
5. Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is indicated for the treatment of women with
- A. uterine bleeding.
- B. cervical cancer.
- C. ovarian cancer.
- D. fibromyalgia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Provera) is commonly used to treat conditions like abnormal uterine bleeding, amenorrhea, and endometriosis. It helps regulate the menstrual cycle and reduce excessive bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B, cervical cancer, is incorrect because Provera is not indicated for the treatment of cancer. Choice C, ovarian cancer, is also incorrect as Provera is not a primary treatment for ovarian cancer. Choice D, fibromyalgia, is unrelated to the use of medroxyprogesterone acetate.
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