ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam
1. A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?
- A. Sputum culture
- B. Bronchoscopy
- C. Chest x-ray
- D. CT scan of the chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.
2. What important point should the nurse emphasize about taking oral contraceptives consistently?
- A. Oral contraceptives must be taken at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
- B. Oral contraceptives should be taken in the morning to avoid side effects at night.
- C. Oral contraceptives should be taken with food to enhance absorption.
- D. Oral contraceptives can be skipped occasionally without significant consequences.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. It is crucial for patients taking oral contraceptives to take them at the same time each day to maintain consistent hormone levels, which is essential for their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of the medication is more about consistency than avoiding side effects at night. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives do not necessarily need to be taken with food for absorption. Choice D is incorrect because skipping oral contraceptives occasionally can significantly reduce their effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.
3. How does tamsulosin (Flomax) primarily benefit male patients with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
- A. Relaxation of the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, leading to improved urinary flow.
- B. Reduction in prostate size and improvement in urinary symptoms.
- C. Increase in urine flow and relief of urinary obstruction.
- D. Improvement in erectile function.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tamsulosin works by relaxing the muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, which helps improve urinary flow in patients with BPH. This relaxation reduces the symptoms associated with BPH, such as urinary hesitancy, urgency, and frequency. Choice B is incorrect because tamsulosin does not directly reduce the size of the prostate gland. Choice C is incorrect as while tamsulosin does improve urine flow, its primary mechanism of action is through muscle relaxation rather than directly relieving obstruction. Choice D is incorrect as tamsulosin is not indicated for improving erectile function; its main therapeutic effect is targeted towards urinary symptoms related to BPH.
4. A patient is prescribed dutasteride (Avodart) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What outcome should the nurse expect to observe if the drug is having the desired effect?
- A. Decreased size of the prostate gland
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Increased urine flow
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased size of the prostate gland. Dutasteride is a medication used for BPH to reduce the size of the prostate gland, thereby improving urinary flow and decreasing symptoms. Choice B, increased urinary output, is incorrect as dutasteride primarily targets the size of the prostate gland rather than directly affecting urinary output. Choice C, increased urine flow, is related to the expected outcome of dutasteride therapy but is not as direct as the reduction in the size of the prostate gland. Choice D, decreased blood pressure, is not an expected outcome of dutasteride therapy for BPH.
5. After ingestion of cysts, how long does it take for the symptoms of giardiasis to develop?
- A. 12 to 24 hours
- B. 3 to 5 days
- C. 1 to 2 weeks
- D. 2 to 3 months
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Giardiasis symptoms typically develop 3 to 5 days after ingestion of the cysts. This timeframe aligns with the incubation period of the Giardia parasite. Choice A (12 to 24 hours) is too short for giardiasis to manifest. Choice C (1 to 2 weeks) and choice D (2 to 3 months) represent durations that are not consistent with the usual onset of symptoms in giardiasis.
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