a client with a history of tuberculosis tb is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered
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ATI Pathophysiology Final Exam

1. A client with a history of tuberculosis (TB) is experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate being ordered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A chest x-ray is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a client with a history of tuberculosis experiencing a recurrence of symptoms. A chest x-ray is commonly used to visualize the lungs and check for signs of active tuberculosis, such as abnormal shadows or nodules. While a sputum culture (Choice A) can confirm the presence of TB bacteria, it may not be the initial test ordered for a recurrence. Bronchoscopy (Choice B) and CT scan of the chest (Choice D) are more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the chest x-ray is inconclusive or to further assess complications, rather than as the initial diagnostic test for a recurrence of tuberculosis.

2. Which of the following might result from severe diarrhea?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic acidosis. Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis because the loss of bicarbonate ions in the stool results in an overall decrease in the body's bicarbonate levels. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) is caused by retention of carbon dioxide, usually due to inadequate alveolar ventilation. Metabolic alkalosis (choice B) is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels, usually caused by conditions like vomiting. Respiratory alkalosis (choice C) is a condition of low blood carbon dioxide levels and high pH, often due to hyperventilation.

3. What is the major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) in a patient with chronic renal failure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The major effect of filgrastim (Neupogen) is to stimulate the production of neutrophils, thereby decreasing neutropenia in patients undergoing chemotherapy. This medication helps the bone marrow produce more white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, to reduce the risk of infections associated with low neutrophil counts. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because filgrastim does not decrease white blood cells related to infection, growth of blood vessels, or platelet count related to bleeding.

4. Which of the following patients are at higher risk for developing oral cancer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Both an adult male with a history of alcoholism and a middle-aged male who smokes a pipe.' Alcohol consumption and tobacco use, such as smoking a pipe, are well-known risk factors for developing oral cancer. These two factors significantly increase the likelihood of developing oral cancer compared to the other choices. Taking oral contraceptives, eating spicy foods regularly, and chewing gum frequently are not established risk factors for oral cancer, making them less likely to lead to the development of this type of cancer.

5. What is the common denominator of all forms of heart failure?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Reduced cardiac output. All forms of heart failure share the common denominator of reduced cardiac output, which leads to inadequate tissue perfusion. Pulmonary edema (choice A) is a consequence of heart failure but not the common denominator. Jugular venous distention (choice B) and peripheral edema (choice C) are signs of heart failure but do not represent the common denominator shared by all forms.

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