ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?
- A. Suprapubic pain
- B. Periorbital edema
- C. Low serum creatinine level
- D. Palpable kidneys
Correct answer: Palpable kidneys
Rationale: Palpable kidneys are a common clinical manifestation in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to the enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with this condition. Periorbital edema is more commonly seen in conditions like nephrotic syndrome. A low serum creatinine level is not a typical finding in renal impairment, as impaired kidneys usually lead to an elevated serum creatinine level.
2. During a physical assessment, the nurse examines the lymph nodes of a patient. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?
- A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node
- B. A 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node
- C. An inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes
- D. Firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 2-cm nontender supraclavicular node is of most concern because enlarged and nontender nodes in this area are highly suggestive of malignancies such as lymphoma. Choice B is less concerning as a 1-cm mobile and nontender axillary node is usually benign. Choice C, an inability to palpate any superficial lymph nodes, could be due to factors like obesity or edema, but it is not necessarily a cause for immediate concern. Choice D, firm inguinal nodes in a patient with an infected foot, may indicate a local reaction to infection rather than a systemic issue related to malignancy.
3. What should be done to manage a patient with contact precautions?
- A. Wear a mask, gown, and gloves for all patient interactions.
- B. Ensure that visitors wear protective equipment.
- C. Dedicate all patient care equipment to that patient.
- D. Disinfect shared equipment before use.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When managing a patient with contact precautions, it is essential to dedicate all patient care equipment to that specific patient. This practice helps minimize the risk of spreading infections to other patients. Choice A, wearing protective gear for all patient interactions, is a general precaution but not specific to managing a patient with contact precautions. Choice B, ensuring visitors wear protective equipment, is important for infection control but not directly related to managing the patient with contact precautions. Choice D, disinfecting shared equipment before use, is a good practice for infection control in general but does not address the specific needs of a patient under contact precautions.
4. What are the important considerations when administering blood products to a patient?
- A. Ensuring proper documentation of the transfusion
- B. Verifying the patient's identity before administration
- C. Monitoring for allergic reactions or transfusion reactions
- D. Monitoring the patient's vital signs during transfusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the patient's identity before administration is a critical step to ensure that the correct blood product is given to the right patient, thereby preventing transfusion errors. While ensuring proper documentation of the transfusion (choice A) is important for record-keeping, verifying patient identity (choice B) directly addresses the risk of administering blood to the wrong patient. Monitoring for allergic reactions or transfusion reactions (choice C) and monitoring the patient's vital signs during transfusion (choice D) are also essential considerations during blood product administration, but verifying patient identity takes precedence to prevent potentially life-threatening errors.
5. While in an induced coma for 3 weeks, a badly burned firefighter awakens and thanks his son for singing Happy Birthday to him a week earlier. Which part of the brain is responsible for allowing him to hear and comprehend while comatose?
- A. Cerebellum
- B. Thalamus
- C. Temporal lobe
- D. Occipital lobe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The temporal lobe is responsible for processing auditory information, allowing the patient to hear and comprehend while in a coma. The cerebellum is primarily associated with coordination and balance, not auditory processing. The thalamus serves as a relay station for sensory information but is not specifically responsible for auditory processing. The occipital lobe is mainly involved in processing visual information, not auditory functions.
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