a patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing the nurse knows that the next ste
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet

1. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.

2. A client with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache and blurred vision. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed. In a client with a history of hypertension presenting with severe headache and blurred vision, these symptoms could indicate a hypertensive crisis. The priority action is to lower the blood pressure promptly to prevent complications such as stroke, heart attack, or organ damage. Administering antihypertensive medications is crucial in this situation. Administering pain relief medication (Choice A) may temporarily alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying issue of elevated blood pressure. Obtaining a stat head CT scan (Choice B) may be necessary to rule out other causes but should not delay the administration of antihypertensive medications. Calling the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important but may not address the immediate need to lower blood pressure in a hypertensive crisis.

3. A secondary immune response differs from the primary immune response in that:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A secondary immune response is characterized by being more rapid than the primary response and results in higher antibody levels. This is because memory B cells are already present and can quickly differentiate into plasma cells upon re-exposure to the antigen. Choice B is incorrect because a secondary immune response is faster, not slower, than the primary response, and it does lead to higher antibody levels. Choice C is incorrect because a secondary response does not result in a decrease in antibodies; instead, it leads to an increase. Choice D is incorrect because a secondary immune response is not limited to hyperallergic reactions, and it results in an increase, not a decrease, in antibodies.

4. Innate resistance or immunity:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Innate resistance or immunity relies on the body's natural defenses like physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers. These barriers act as the first line of defense against pathogens and do not involve memory (choice A). Innate immunity is present from birth and does not develop over an individual's later years (choice B). Additionally, innate immunity is a rapid and nonspecific process, not a slow and specific one (choice C). Therefore, the correct answer is D.

5. A patient is being treated with raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used to prevent bone loss. It should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, not on an empty stomach. Choices A and B are incorrect because raloxifene is indeed a SERM that prevents bone loss, but it does not directly work by increasing bone formation or decreasing bone resorption. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain and fluid retention are not common side effects of raloxifene.

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