ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A patient underwent an open cholecystectomy 4 days ago, and her incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. The nurse knows that the next step in the process of wound healing is:
- A. Inflammation
- B. Maturation
- C. Remodeling
- D. Coagulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the context of wound healing, after the proliferative phase comes the remodeling phase. During the remodeling phase, the wound gains strength as collagen fibers reorganize, and the scar matures. Inflammation is the initial phase of healing, where the body responds to injury with redness, swelling, and warmth. Maturation is the final stage where the scar tissue continues to undergo changes but is not the immediate next step after the proliferative phase. Coagulation is the process of blood clot formation and is not a phase in wound healing.
2. After a thoracentesis on a client with a pleural effusion, which nursing intervention is most important post-procedure?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection.
- B. Assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma.
- C. Monitor vital signs and respiratory status.
- D. Instruct the client to rest and limit physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess for signs of bleeding or hematoma. After a thoracentesis, it is crucial to monitor for any bleeding or hematoma formation at the puncture site, as this can lead to complications. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is essential but is usually a delayed concern compared to the immediate risk of bleeding post-procedure. While monitoring vital signs and respiratory status (Choice C) is important, assessing for bleeding takes precedence to address any immediate complications. Instructing the client to rest and limit physical activity (Choice D) is relevant for general post-procedure care but is not the most critical intervention in this scenario.
3. An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a sex hormone deficiency and has begun a course of treatment with testosterone. What change in the boy's health status would necessitate a stop to the course of treatment?
- A. Excessive growth in height
- B. Signs of puberty
- C. Recurrent urinary tract infections
- D. Increased blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In an 8-year-old boy with a sex hormone deficiency being treated with testosterone, the appearance of signs of puberty would necessitate stopping the treatment. Testosterone therapy in this case aims to supplement the deficient sex hormones but should not trigger premature puberty. Excessive growth in height (choice A) is not a typical reason to stop testosterone therapy. Recurrent urinary tract infections (choice C) and increased blood pressure (choice D) are not directly related to testosterone therapy in this context.
4. A 30-year-old woman presents with joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
- C. Psoriatic arthritis
- D. Dermatomyositis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Systemic lupus erythematosus. Joint pain, a malar rash, and photosensitivity are classic symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus. Choice A, Rheumatoid arthritis, is incorrect as it typically presents with symmetric joint involvement and morning stiffness. Psoriatic arthritis (Choice C) is characterized by joint pain associated with psoriasis, which is not described in the case. Dermatomyositis (Choice D) presents with muscle weakness, skin rash, and elevated muscle enzymes, different from the symptoms presented in the case.
5. A nurse is teaching a young adult patient about oral contraceptives, which the patient will soon begin taking. The patient's primary concern is the effectiveness of the medication in preventing pregnancy. The nurse should teach the patient that oral contraceptives, when taken consistently, are how effective in preventing pregnancy?
- A. Between 96% and 98%
- B. Approximately 98.5%
- C. Highly effective, but partially dependent on genetic factors
- D. Nearly 100%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When taken correctly, estrogen–progestin contraceptive preparations are nearly 100% effective in preventing pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A suggests a range below the actual effectiveness, choice B provides a specific percentage that is not accurate, and choice C introduces the concept of genetic factors which is not relevant to the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
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