ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. What can multiple dark bands on the nails indicate?
- A. They are considered a normal variant.
- B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
- C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
- D. They are associated with aging.
Correct answer: They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be associated with malignant melanoma, a serious type of skin cancer. While dark bands on the nails can sometimes be a normal variant, they should not be ignored as they could also be a sign of a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents with different symptoms such as thickened, discolored, or brittle nails. Dark bands on the nails are not directly associated with aging.
2. A nursing student is learning about the effects of bactericidal agents. How does rifampin (Rifadin) achieve a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms?
- A. It is metabolized in the liver.
- B. It binds to acetylcholine.
- C. It inhibits synthesis of RNA.
- D. It causes phagocytosis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Rifampin (Rifadin) achieves a therapeutic action against both intracellular and extracellular tuberculosis organisms by inhibiting the synthesis of RNA. This action interferes with bacterial RNA synthesis, leading to the suppression of protein synthesis in the bacteria, ultimately causing their death. Option A is incorrect because rifampin is primarily metabolized in the liver, but this is not how it exerts its bactericidal effects. Option B is incorrect as rifampin does not bind to acetylcholine. Option D is also incorrect as rifampin does not cause phagocytosis.
3. The community health nurse is instructing a group of young female clients about breast self-examination. The nurse should instruct the clients to perform the examination at which time?
- A. At the onset of menstruation
- B. Every month during ovulation
- C. Weekly at the same time of day
- D. 1 week after menstruation begins
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The optimal time for performing a breast self-examination (BSE) is about one week after menstruation begins, as this is when the breasts are least likely to be swollen, tender, or affected by hormonal changes. Hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause temporary changes in breast tissue, such as swelling, lumpiness, or tenderness, which may make it more difficult to detect any unusual lumps or changes. Conducting the examination during this period ensures that the breasts are in their natural state, making it easier to notice any abnormalities.
4. Which of the following actions is a means of maintaining medical asepsis to reduce and prevent the spread of microorganisms?
- A. Sterilizing contaminated items
- B. Routinely cleaning the hospital environment
- C. Reapplying a sterile dressing
- D. Applying a sterile gown and gloves
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sterilizing contaminated items. Maintaining medical asepsis involves ensuring that items are free of microorganisms to prevent infections. Sterilizing contaminated items is a crucial step in this process as it eliminates all microorganisms, including spores. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the process of reducing and preventing the spread of microorganisms. While routinely cleaning the hospital environment is important for cleanliness, it does not guarantee the elimination of all microorganisms. Reapplying a sterile dressing and applying a sterile gown and gloves are specific actions related to personal protective equipment and wound care, not the general maintenance of medical asepsis.
5. A nurse is teaching a patient about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for the prevention of osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?
- A. It decreases the absorption of calcium from the intestines.
- B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
- C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
- D. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing osteoporosis by maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect as raloxifene does not affect the absorption of calcium from the intestines. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene does not directly stimulate the formation of new bone; instead, it primarily works by reducing bone loss.
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