ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. What can multiple dark bands on the nails indicate?
- A. They are considered a normal variant.
- B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
- C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
- D. They are associated with aging.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be associated with malignant melanoma, a serious type of skin cancer. While dark bands on the nails can sometimes be a normal variant, they should not be ignored as they could also be a sign of a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents with different symptoms such as thickened, discolored, or brittle nails. Dark bands on the nails are not directly associated with aging.
2. Which of the following outcome criteria is appropriate for a client with dementia?
- A. The client will return to an established schedule for activities of daily living.
- B. The client will learn new coping mechanisms to handle anxiety.
- C. The client will seek out resources in the community for support.
- D. The client will follow an established schedule for activities of daily living.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. For clients with dementia, following an established schedule for activities of daily living is appropriate as it helps maintain routine and structure, which can be beneficial for their condition. Choice A has been rephrased to align better with the context of dementia care. Choice A is incorrect as expecting a return to a previous level of self-functioning may not be realistic for clients with dementia. Choice B is not the most appropriate outcome criteria as handling anxiety, while important, may not be the primary focus when working with clients with dementia. Choice C, seeking out resources in the community for support, is also important but may not be as directly related to the day-to-day care and management of activities for a client with dementia.
3. Which of the following conditions is associated with a positive Homan's sign?
- A. Deep vein thrombosis
- B. Peripheral artery disease
- C. Varicose veins
- D. Lymphedema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A positive Homan's sign is indicative of deep vein thrombosis. This sign is elicited by dorsiflexing the foot of a patient with the knee slightly flexed, resulting in calf pain. Peripheral artery disease (choice B) is associated with decreased blood flow to the extremities, but it does not produce a positive Homan's sign. Varicose veins (choice C) are enlarged, twisted veins that are typically not related to Homan's sign. Lymphedema (choice D) is swelling caused by a lymphatic system blockage or dysfunction and is not linked to Homan's sign.
4. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation in a patient with renal impairment associated with polycystic kidney disease?
- A. Suprapubic pain
- B. Periorbital edema
- C. Low serum creatinine level
- D. Palpable kidneys
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Palpable kidneys are a common clinical manifestation in patients with polycystic kidney disease due to the enlarged kidneys with multiple cysts. Suprapubic pain is not typically associated with this condition. Periorbital edema is more commonly seen in conditions like nephrotic syndrome. A low serum creatinine level is not a typical finding in renal impairment, as impaired kidneys usually lead to an elevated serum creatinine level.
5. A patient has been diagnosed with cytomegalovirus (CMV). Which of the following drugs would be ineffective in the treatment of this disease?
- A. Ribavirin (Rebetol)
- B. Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV
- C. Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV
- D. Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Ribavirin (Rebetol). Ribavirin is not effective against CMV. Choice B, Ganciclovir (Cytovene) IV, is a common treatment for CMV as it inhibits viral DNA synthesis. Choice C, Foscarnet (Foscavir) IV, is also used for CMV infections by blocking viral DNA polymerase. Choice D, Valganciclovir hydrochloride (Valcyte), is a prodrug of Ganciclovir and is effective against CMV. Therefore, Ribavirin is the drug that would be ineffective in treating CMV.
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