Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

2. When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:

• A. A reduced immune response found in most pathologic states
• B. A normal immune response to an infectious agent
• C. An excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen
• D. Antigenic desensitization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypersensitivity is correctly defined as an excessive or inappropriate response of the immune system to a sensitizing antigen. This response leads to tissue damage or other clinical manifestations. Choice A is incorrect as hypersensitivity involves an exaggerated, not a reduced, immune response. Choice B is incorrect because hypersensitivity is not a normal immune response to an infectious agent but rather an exaggerated one. Choice D is incorrect as it refers to desensitization, which is the opposite of hypersensitivity.

3. A patient who is being administered isoniazid (INH) for tuberculosis has a yellow color in the sclera of her eye. What other finding would lead you to believe that hepatotoxicity has developed?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Numbness
• C. Diminished vision
• D. Light-colored stools

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diarrhea. Hepatotoxicity caused by isoniazid can present with various symptoms, including yellow discoloration of the sclera of the eyes, which indicates jaundice. Another common sign of hepatotoxicity is gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can occur due to liver dysfunction affecting bile production and digestion. Numbness (choice B) is more commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy caused by isoniazid, while diminished vision (choice C) and light-colored stools (choice D) are not typical manifestations of hepatotoxicity.

4. A patient is being educated about the use of raloxifene (Evista) for osteoporosis. What is the primary therapeutic action of this medication?

• A. It stimulates the formation of new bone.
• B. It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.
• C. It increases the excretion of calcium through the kidneys.
• D. It increases calcium absorption in the intestines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It decreases bone resorption and increases bone density.' Raloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), works by decreasing bone resorption, which is the breakdown of bone, and increasing bone density. This action helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength. Choice A is incorrect because raloxifene does not stimulate the formation of new bone but rather prevents its breakdown. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene does not increase the excretion of calcium but rather helps in maintaining calcium levels in the bones. Choice D is also incorrect as raloxifene does not directly increase calcium absorption in the intestines.

5. What is the expected outcome of administering a granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

• A. Reduction in red blood cell count
• B. Decreased number of infections
• C. Decreased fatigue and increased energy
• D. Increase in white blood cell count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

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