ATI RN
MSN 570 Advanced Pathophysiology Final 2024
1. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?
- A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
- B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
- C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
- D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.
Correct answer: The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.
2. A community health nurse is teaching a group of clients about first aid for different types of wounds. Which client statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Apply pressure directly to the wound
- B. Remove the dressings to assess the wound
- C. Use a clean dressing over the saturated one
- D. Apply alcohol to the wound
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because placing a clean dressing over the saturated one helps maintain wound integrity and prevents further tissue damage. Choice A is incorrect as applying direct pressure to the wound is correct for controlling bleeding but not for dressing changes. Choice B is incorrect because removing dressings may disrupt wound healing and increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect since applying alcohol to the wound can cause further irritation and damage to the tissues.
3. Children with cerebral palsy, Down syndrome, and intellectual disabilities are likely to have abnormal sensory input and muscle tone. A small, underdeveloped tongue is common in many such disorders and results in diminished nutritional status.
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The first statement is true, but the second is false. These children often have a large tongue or tongue thrust, which can interfere with feeding and nutrition.
4. During a manic episode, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
- B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
- C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
- D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals may experience heightened energy levels and reduced impulse control. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach helps reduce excessive stimulation and potential triggers for further escalation of manic behavior. It promotes a calming and controlled setting, assisting in managing symptoms and promoting the patient's well-being. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may lead to overstimulation, allowing the patient to engage in physical activities freely (Choice C) could be risky due to impulsivity, and giving detailed tasks (Choice D) might overwhelm the individual.
5. A 52-year-old patient has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse determines that the patient understands the teaching about the disorder when the patient states:
- A. I need to start eating more red meat and liver.
- B. I will stop having a glass of wine with dinner.
- C. I could choose nasal spray rather than injections of vitamin B12.
- D. I will need to take a proton pump inhibitor such as omeprazole (Prilosec).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pernicious anemia is a condition where the body can't absorb enough vitamin B12. Treatment usually involves lifelong replacement of vitamin B12. In this case, the patient understanding the disorder is correctly demonstrated by choosing nasal spray or injections of vitamin B12 for replacement therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing red meat/liver intake, stopping wine consumption, or taking a proton pump inhibitor like omeprazole do not address the primary issue of vitamin B12 absorption in pernicious anemia.
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