Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

2. A 30-year-old man has a history of heart transplant and is receiving long-term steroids to prevent rejection. The patient is due for routine vaccines. Attenuated vaccines are contraindicated in this patient because the antigen is:

• A. live and can cause infection.
• B. mutated and infectious.
• C. inactive but still infectious.
• D. pathogenic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: live and can cause infection. In patients like the one described with a history of heart transplant and receiving long-term steroids, who are immunocompromised, live attenuated vaccines are contraindicated. Live vaccines contain weakened (attenuated) forms of the virus or bacteria, which can replicate and cause mild infections in healthy individuals but can lead to serious infections in immunocompromised individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because attenuated vaccines are not mutated, not inactive, and not pathogenic in healthy individuals, respectively.

3. What is a critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen (Nolvadex)?

• A. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism.
• B. Tamoxifen may decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
• C. Tamoxifen may cause hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms.
• D. Tamoxifen may cause weight gain and fluid retention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The critical point the nurse should include in patient education for a patient prescribed tamoxifen is that it may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism. This is crucial information because tamoxifen is known to promote blood clot formation, and patients need to be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots to seek prompt medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tamoxifen is not associated with decreasing the risk of osteoporosis, causing hot flashes and other menopausal symptoms, or directly causing weight gain and fluid retention.

4. Which statement best conveys an aspect of the role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

• A. CSF provides immune protection to the brain and spinal cord by serving as a physical barrier.
• B. CSF cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury.
• C. CSF plays a limited role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and brain.
• D. CSF functions primarily as a medium for the transmission of nerve impulses.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cerebrospinal fluid primarily cushions the brain and spinal cord, protecting them from injury. Choice A is incorrect because while CSF contributes to the brain's immune environment, its main role is not providing immune protection as a physical barrier. Choice C is incorrect because CSF has a significant role in the exchange of nutrients and waste products, rather than a limited one. Choice D is incorrect as CSF is not primarily a medium for nerve impulse transmission, but rather serves as a protective and supportive fluid.

5. A woman suffers from amenorrhea. Which of the following medications will most likely be prescribed?

• A. Testosterone
• B. Follicle-stimulating hormone
• C. Estrogen
• D. Lactate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Estrogen is the correct answer. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is often due to hormonal imbalances. Estrogen plays a crucial role in regulating the menstrual cycle. Prescribing estrogen can help address these hormonal imbalances and restore menstrual cycles. Testosterone (Choice A) is not typically prescribed for amenorrhea in women as it can further disrupt hormonal balance. Follicle-stimulating hormone (Choice B) is involved in stimulating ovulation and follicle development, not the primary treatment for amenorrhea. Lactate (Choice D) is not a medication used to treat amenorrhea.

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