Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage due to allergic rhinitis, which statement is accurate?

• A. The hemorrhage will resolve without treatment within 2 weeks.
• B. The patient should be referred for immediate ophthalmologic examination.
• C. Oral antihistamines should be started to prevent further complications.
• D. Topical corticosteroids may be considered to reduce inflammation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with a subconjunctival hemorrhage secondary to allergic rhinitis, the hemorrhage is typically self-limiting and will resolve on its own within 2 weeks without the need for specific treatment. Referring the patient for immediate ophthalmologic examination is not necessary unless there are other concerning symptoms. Starting oral antihistamines may help manage the underlying allergic rhinitis but is not specifically indicated for the hemorrhage. Topical corticosteroids are not routinely prescribed for subconjunctival hemorrhage as they may have limited benefit and could potentially cause complications.

2. What is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma?

• A. Infection
• B. Allergic reaction
• C. Excessive exercise
• D. High altitude

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An allergic reaction is a common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients. When individuals with asthma come in contact with allergens like pollen, dust mites, or pet dander, it can lead to an allergic reaction that triggers bronchospasm. Infections, excessive exercise, and high altitudes can exacerbate asthma symptoms, but they are not the most common trigger for acute bronchospasm in asthma patients.

3. What is responsible for initiating clonal selection?

• A. B cells
• B. T cells
• C. Antigens
• D. Lymphocytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Antigens are the correct answer as they are the molecules that trigger the immune response by binding to specific B or T cells. This binding activates these cells, leading to their proliferation and differentiation to fight off the antigen. B cells and T cells are the responders to antigens, not the initiators of clonal selection. Lymphocytes is a broad term encompassing both B and T cells, so it is not the specific factor responsible for initiating clonal selection.

4. What is a potential implication of multiple dark bands on the nails?

• A. They are considered a normal variant.
• B. They can be associated with malignant melanoma.
• C. They are indicative of a nail fungus.
• D. They are associated with aging.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Multiple dark bands on the nails can be a concerning sign of malignant melanoma, a type of skin cancer that can affect the nails. While some nail changes are considered normal variants, dark bands should not be dismissed lightly as they can indicate a serious condition like melanoma. Nail fungus typically presents differently, causing discoloration, thickening, or distortion of the nail without distinct dark bands. Additionally, aging can lead to various nail changes, but dark bands alone are not a common feature of normal aging.

5. In which of the following cases is dehydration more likely to occur?

• A. A 50-year-old woman who is a bodybuilder
• B. A 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese
• C. A 10-year-old child who is thin
• D. A 30-year-old with multiple sclerosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dehydration is more likely to occur in a 50-year-old man who is morbidly obese due to the increased risk of conditions like diabetes and heart disease that can lead to fluid imbalances. Being morbidly obese can also strain the body's systems, increasing the need for water. The other choices are less likely to experience dehydration as a primary concern. While being a bodybuilder may require strict hydration practices, dehydration is more prevalent in individuals with conditions like obesity.

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