Nursing Elites

1. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is providing care for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Which client behavior would the healthcare professional identify as characteristic of a manic episode?

• A. Sleeping excessively
• B. Excessive energy
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Lack of interest in activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals often experience heightened energy levels, increased goal-directed activity, and may engage in risky behaviors. This excessive energy is a key characteristic of manic episodes. Choice A, sleeping excessively, is more characteristic of a depressive episode. Choice C, decreased appetite, can be seen in various mood disorders but is not specific to manic episodes. Choice D, lack of interest in activities, is more indicative of a depressive episode rather than a manic episode. It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize these signs to provide appropriate care and support to individuals with bipolar disorder.

3. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who appears to be experiencing moderate anxiety during questioning. Which symptom shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Fidgeting
• B. Laughing inappropriately
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nail biting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpitations are not typically associated with moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting are common behavioral symptoms of heightened stress levels. Palpitations may be more indicative of physiological responses, such as increased heart rate, which can occur in severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other signs of severe anxiety include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.

5. Which of the following therapies is considered the most effective for treating phobias?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is widely recognized as the most effective treatment for phobias. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with their phobias, leading to long-lasting improvement and symptom reduction. Unlike psychoanalysis, which focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts, CBT provides practical strategies to address phobias directly. Medication management may be used in conjunction with therapy but is not typically considered a standalone treatment for phobias. Group therapy can be beneficial for some individuals, but CBT is specifically tailored to target and alleviate phobia symptoms effectively.

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