Nursing Elites

1. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

2. During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the nurse's best response?

• A. It's just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.
• B. Why are you concerned about these types of questions?
• C. Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.
• D. We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn't imperative that we complete this section.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should educate the client about the impact of psychological factors, such as excessive stress, on medical conditions. Understanding this connection is crucial in providing holistic care. It is essential to address both physiological and psychosocial aspects during the assessment to obtain a comprehensive understanding of the client's health status and needs. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects on medical conditions. Choice B is not the best response as it does not provide valuable information about the connection between psychological factors and medical conditions. Choice D is incorrect because skipping these questions could lead to missing crucial information that may impact the client's overall well-being and treatment plan.

3. When using therapeutic communication with a withdrawn patient who has major depression, an effective method of managing the silence is to:

• A. Engage in a quiet meditation
• B. Ask simple questions even if the patient will not answer
• C. Use the technique of making observations
• D. Simply sit quietly and leave when the patient falls asleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Using the technique of making observations is an effective method of managing silence when communicating with a withdrawn patient who has major depression. This approach can encourage the patient to engage and feel understood without the pressure to respond, fostering a therapeutic connection and helping the patient open up at their own pace.

4. For a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior, which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Supportive therapy
• D. Pharmacotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic approach for a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder, including self-harming behaviors. It focuses on teaching patients skills to manage emotions, improve interpersonal relationships, and enhance distress tolerance. Psychoanalysis (Choice B) is not the most appropriate for immediate symptom management in this case. Supportive therapy (Choice C) may not provide the structured approach needed to address self-harming behaviors effectively. Pharmacotherapy (Choice D) may be used as an adjunct in some cases, but DBT is the frontline therapy for managing self-harming behaviors in borderline personality disorder.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

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