Nursing Elites

1. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

2. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?

• A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit, implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention to promote the client's safety. A no-harm contract is a formal agreement between the client and the healthcare provider stating that the client commits to not harm themselves or others. This intervention helps in establishing boundaries and promoting safety by enhancing communication and accountability between the client and the healthcare team. Monitoring the client closely for signs of self-harm (Choice B) is important but does not directly address promoting safety through a formal agreement. Encouraging participation in recreational activities (Choice C) and maintaining a structured daily routine (Choice D) are beneficial interventions but may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a client with borderline personality disorder.

3. Which of the following are common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Nausea
• B. Insomnia
• C. Weight loss
• D. Sexual dysfunction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include nausea, insomnia, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Weight loss is not a common side effect associated with SSRIs. Therefore, the correct answer is C. While some individuals may experience weight changes while taking SSRIs, weight loss is less common compared to weight gain as a side effect of these medications.

4. Which response demonstrates accurate information that should be discussed with the female patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder and her support system? Select the incorrect one.

• A. Remember that alcohol and caffeine can trigger a relapse of your symptoms.
• B. Due to the risk of a manic episode, antidepressant therapy is never used with bipolar disorder.
• C. It's critical to inform your healthcare provider immediately if you are experiencing sleep disturbances.
• D. Is your family prepared to be actively involved in helping manage this disorder?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing bipolar disorder, it is vital to educate the patient and their support system about triggers like alcohol and caffeine, the significance of good sleep, and the need for family involvement. However, the statement in choice B is incorrect. While antidepressants need to be carefully monitored in bipolar disorder, they can be used in conjunction with mood stabilizers to manage depression in some cases.

5. A patient with agoraphobia is unable to leave home. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Teach the patient relaxation techniques.
• B. Gradual exposure to feared situations.
• C. Encourage the patient to attend social gatherings.
• D. Provide education about the disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a patient with agoraphobia, the priority intervention should be gradual exposure to feared situations. This approach helps the patient confront and gradually overcome their fear of leaving home, a common challenge in agoraphobia. By exposing the patient to feared situations in a step-by-step manner, they can learn to manage their anxiety and increase their confidence in leaving home. Teaching relaxation techniques (Choice A) can be beneficial but may not address the core issue of avoidance behavior. Encouraging the patient to attend social gatherings (Choice C) can be overwhelming and counterproductive at the initial stage of treatment. Providing education about the disorder (Choice D) is important but should come after addressing the immediate need for exposure therapy.

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