Nursing Elites

1. How should the nurse characterize the client's appraisal of the job loss stressor?

• A. Irrelevant
• B. Harm/loss
• C. Threatening
• D. Challenging

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's statement reflects a positive outlook on the job loss, viewing it as a challenge and an opportunity for personal growth. This perspective suggests that the client is resilient and adaptive, focusing on new possibilities rather than dwelling on the negative aspects of the situation. Choice D, 'Challenging,' is the correct characterization as it aligns with the client's positive appraisal. Choices A, 'Irrelevant,' B, 'Harm/loss,' and C, 'Threatening,' are incorrect as they do not capture the client's adaptive response to the stressor.

2. During a manic episode, which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
• B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
• C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
• D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals may experience heightened energy levels and reduced impulse control. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach helps reduce excessive stimulation and potential triggers for further escalation of manic behavior. It promotes a calming and controlled setting, assisting in managing symptoms and promoting the patient's well-being. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may lead to overstimulation, allowing the patient to engage in physical activities freely (Choice C) could be risky due to impulsivity, and giving detailed tasks (Choice D) might overwhelm the individual.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. Which statement about the concept of psychoses is most accurate?

• A. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive.
• B. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress.
• C. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems.
• D. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most accurate statement about psychoses is that individuals experiencing it often exhibit limited distress because they are not fully aware of their altered perception of reality. They may not recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive or acknowledge the presence of psychological issues. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not be aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not have insight into their psychological problems. Choice D is incorrect because individuals with psychoses often struggle to differentiate between reality and their altered perceptions.

5. When assessing a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder who states, 'I feel like I can't go on,' which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer a prescribed antidepressant medication.
• B. Ask the client if they have a plan to commit suicide.
• C. Encourage the client to attend a support group.
• D. Contact the client's family to provide support.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's risk for suicide. By asking if the client has a plan to commit suicide, the nurse can determine the immediate safety of the client and take appropriate interventions to prevent harm. Administering antidepressant medication is not the first action to take in this situation as assessing the client's safety is the priority. Encouraging the client to attend a support group or contacting the client's family, although beneficial, are not immediate actions to ensure the client's safety in a crisis situation.

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