Nursing Elites

1. A client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is being cared for by a nurse. Which symptom should the nurse identify as a priority to address?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Increased heart rate
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased heart rate is a critical symptom to address in a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal as it can indicate potential cardiovascular complications. Monitoring and managing the increased heart rate promptly is essential to prevent adverse outcomes.

2. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia states, 'The FBI is watching me. I see their agents everywhere.' Which is the nurse's most appropriate response?

• A. You shouldn't worry about that. It's not real.
• B. I don't see any FBI agents, but it sounds like you're feeling frightened.
• C. Let's talk about something else to take your mind off of it.
• D. Why do you think the FBI is watching you?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Validating the client's feelings without reinforcing the delusion is important. This response acknowledges the client's fear without agreeing with the delusion. It shows empathy and understanding towards the client's emotions while not validating the delusional belief.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts
• B. Compulsive behaviors
• C. Delusions of grandeur
• D. Avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), common findings include recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions), compulsive behaviors, and avoidance of situations that trigger obsessions. Delusions of grandeur, which involve having an exaggerated sense of power, importance, or identity, are not typically associated with OCD. It is important to differentiate between the specific characteristics of OCD and other mental health conditions to provide accurate care and interventions for clients.

4. During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, which intervention is most appropriate for a patient?

• A. Encourage the patient to engage in group activities.
• B. Provide a structured and low-stimulus environment.
• C. Allow the patient to set their schedule.
• D. Engage the patient in high-energy physical activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened energy levels, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep. Providing a structured and low-stimulus environment is crucial in managing manic episodes. This intervention helps reduce overstimulation and provides a calm and predictable setting, which can be beneficial in helping the patient regain control and stability. Group activities and high-energy physical activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania by increasing stimulation and excitement. Allowing the patient to set their schedule may not provide the necessary structure needed during a manic episode, hence making it less appropriate.

5. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is often used to treat which of the following conditions?

• A. Schizophrenia
• B. Bipolar disorder
• C. Posttraumatic stress disorder
• D. Generalized anxiety disorder

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a widely used therapeutic approach effective in treating various mental health conditions. While CBT can be beneficial for different disorders, it is particularly well-suited for anxiety-related conditions like generalized anxiety disorder. CBT focuses on identifying and modifying negative thought patterns and behaviors contributing to anxiety, making it a suitable choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because CBT is not typically the first-line treatment for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or posttraumatic stress disorder, although it may be used as a part of a comprehensive treatment plan.

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