a nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A client is being assessed by a nurse after being diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In anorexia nervosa, individuals often develop lanugo, fine soft hair, on the face and back. This is a physiological response to the body's attempt to conserve heat due to a lack of subcutaneous fat. It is a common physical finding in clients with anorexia nervosa and can be a sign of severe malnutrition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain and increased appetite, increased body temperature and tachycardia, and hyperactivity and distractibility are not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. In fact, weight loss, decreased appetite, hypothermia, and bradycardia are more commonly seen in individuals with anorexia nervosa.

2. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?

Correct answer: B: People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished.

Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.

3. Which client statement should alert a nurse that a client may be responding maladaptively to stress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reliance on social isolation as a coping mechanism is maladaptive and can hinder the development of appropriate coping skills and access to support systems. It may indicate a lack of healthy coping strategies and social connections, which are important for managing stress effectively. Choice B is a positive coping strategy that promotes self-reflection and emotional expression. Choice C reflects a proactive approach to managing stress through physical activity. Choice D shows a willingness to seek professional help, which is a healthy coping mechanism.

4. When an individual's stress response is sustained over a long period of time, which physiological effect of the endocrine system should one anticipate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When stress is prolonged, the body reaches the stage of exhaustion in the general adaptation syndrome, where compensatory mechanisms fail, and diseases of adaptation may occur. One physiological effect includes a decreased immune response, leading to decreased resistance to disease. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Increased libido (choice B) is not a typical physiological effect related to prolonged stress. Decreased blood pressure (choice C) is not commonly associated with sustained stress. Increased inflammatory response (choice D) may occur in the short term due to stress, but over a prolonged period, the immune system's function weakens, leading to decreased resistance to disease.

5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should not stop taking buspirone (Buspar) abruptly as it may cause withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is correct as buspirone can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so avoiding driving is important. Choice C is also accurate because buspirone may take several weeks to reach its full effectiveness. Choice D is valid as buspirone is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

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