Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, what is an appropriate action by the nurse?

• A. Expel any air bubbles at the top of the prefilled syringe
• B. Massage the injection site to evenly distribute the medication
• C. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall
• D. Administer an NSAID for injection site discomfort

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When administering enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, the nurse should inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall. This site is preferred for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin to reduce the risk of bleeding or injury. Expelling air bubbles, massaging the injection site, or administering an NSAID for discomfort are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications or ineffective medication delivery.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?

• A. Serum albumin.
• B. Ammonia.
• C. Bilirubin.
• D. Prothrombin time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia. In clients with cirrhosis, impaired liver function can lead to elevated levels of ammonia in the blood. Elevated ammonia levels can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by altered mental status. Serum albumin (Choice A) is typically decreased in cirrhosis due to the liver's reduced synthetic function. Bilirubin (Choice C) levels can be elevated in liver disease but may not always be the most specific marker for cirrhosis. Prothrombin time (Choice D) is prolonged in cirrhosis due to impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Grilled chicken.
• B. Fresh fruit.
• C. White bread.
• D. Cheddar cheese.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cheddar cheese is high in phosphorus, which should be avoided by clients with chronic kidney disease. Fresh fruit is generally a healthy choice unless the client needs to limit potassium intake. Grilled chicken is a good protein source for clients with chronic kidney disease. White bread is low in phosphorus and can be included in the diet of clients with kidney disease unless they need to watch their carbohydrate intake.

4. Which of the following is the most concerning electrolyte imbalance for a patient on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion in the body, causing hypokalemia. This is a significant concern as low potassium levels can result in cardiac arrhythmias and other serious complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is unlikely to occur as a result of furosemide use. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not typically linked to furosemide use.

5. A client has a new diagnosis of hypertension and is being taught about lifestyle changes by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your sodium intake to 3,000 mg per day.
• B. Exercise for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week.
• C. Sleep for at least 10 hours each night.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Exercise for 30 minutes at least 5 days a week." Regular exercise helps promote cardiovascular health and manage hypertension. Choice A is incorrect because increasing sodium intake is not recommended for hypertension. Choice C is incorrect because while sleep is important, excessive sleep duration is not typically part of hypertension management. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be adequate unless advised otherwise by a healthcare provider.

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