ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam RN
1. When caring for a client with a new prescription for enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, what is an appropriate action by the nurse?
- A. Expel any air bubbles at the top of the prefilled syringe
- B. Massage the injection site to evenly distribute the medication
- C. Inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall
- D. Administer an NSAID for injection site discomfort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering enoxaparin for the prevention of DVT, the nurse should inject the medication into the lateral abdominal wall. This site is preferred for subcutaneous injections of enoxaparin to reduce the risk of bleeding or injury. Expelling air bubbles, massaging the injection site, or administering an NSAID for discomfort are not appropriate actions and could lead to complications or ineffective medication delivery.
2. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will check my blood glucose levels only when I feel sick.
- B. I will inject insulin in the same spot each time.
- C. I will rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region.
- D. I will inject insulin only if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with type 1 diabetes should rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region to prevent lipodystrophy. Choice A is incorrect because blood glucose levels should be checked regularly, not only when feeling sick. Choice B is incorrect as injecting insulin in the same spot each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as insulin injections are usually required based on meal schedules and blood glucose levels, not just when levels are above 200 mg/dL.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client with a prescription for digoxin. Which result requires withholding the medication?
- A. Digoxin 0.8 ng/mL
- B. Sodium 145 mEq/L
- C. BUN 20 mg/dL
- D. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A low potassium level (3.1 mEq/L) can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to serious dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are within normal ranges and do not indicate a need to withhold digoxin.
4. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Monitor aPTT
- B. Monitor INR
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor sodium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.
5. A client has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?
- A. Jugular vein distention
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Increased respiratory rate
- D. Bounding pulses
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a sign of fluid volume deficit as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume. Jugular vein distention, bradycardia, and bounding pulses are not typical findings of fluid volume deficit. Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload, bradycardia can be a sign of fluid volume excess or other issues, and bounding pulses are not typically seen in fluid volume deficit.
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