Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary choices by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Carrots
• B. Milk
• C. Leafy green vegetables
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Leafy green vegetables. Leafy green vegetables are rich in calcium, which is essential for bone health and can help prevent bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. Carrots (choice A), while nutritious, are not as high in calcium as leafy green vegetables. Milk (choice B) is also a good source of calcium but may not be suitable for clients who are lactose intolerant. Bananas (choice D) are a healthy fruit choice but do not provide significant amounts of calcium needed for osteoporosis.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serous drainage at the incision site
• B. Temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F)
• C. Heart rate 92/min
• D. Blood pressure 130/80 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An elevated temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) indicates a potential infection and should be reported to the provider. Elevated temperature postoperatively is often a sign of infection or inflammation, which can delay healing and increase the risk of complications. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider. Serous drainage at the incision site is expected in the initial postoperative period as part of the normal healing process, a heart rate of 92/min can be a normal response to surgery due to stress or pain, and a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg is also within normal limits for most clients.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a client. Which of the following sites should the healthcare provider select?

• A. Deltoid
• B. Vastus lateralis
• C. Rectus femoris
• D. Dorsogluteal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in adults due to its large muscle mass and low risk of complications. The deltoid, although a common site for vaccines, has a smaller muscle mass and may not be suitable for all types of medications. The rectus femoris is a muscle in the thigh that is more commonly used for intramuscular injections in infants. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.

5. Which lab value should be closely monitored for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Monitor aPTT
• B. Monitor INR
• C. Monitor potassium levels
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor aPTT. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) is crucial to monitor when a patient is receiving heparin therapy. Heparin works by potentiating antithrombin III, leading to the inhibition of thrombin and factor Xa. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for heparin, reducing the risk of bleeding complications. Monitoring INR (Choice B) is more relevant for patients on warfarin therapy. Monitoring potassium (Choice C) and sodium levels (Choice D) is important but not specific to heparin therapy.

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