Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

2. A client is being taught about the use of hypnosis during labor. Which of the following statements is appropriate?

• A. Hypnosis focuses on biofeedback as a relaxation technique
• B. Hypnosis promotes increased control of pain perception during contractions
• C. Hypnosis uses therapeutic touch to reduce anxiety during labor
• D. Hypnosis provides instruction to minimize pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because hypnosis during labor aims to increase control over pain perception, helping manage labor pain without the need for medication. Choice A is incorrect as hypnosis doesn't primarily focus on biofeedback. Choice C is incorrect because hypnosis doesn't rely on therapeutic touch. Choice D is incorrect because hypnosis doesn't just provide instructions to minimize pain but rather helps individuals gain control over their pain perception.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Peripheral edema.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Jugular vein distention.
• D. Dependent edema.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?

• A. White blood cell count of 4,500/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL
• C. Platelet count of 90,000/mm³
• D. Serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A platelet count of 90,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding and requires immediate intervention. Thrombocytopenia can lead to serious bleeding complications, so it is crucial to address this finding promptly. A low white blood cell count (choice A) may indicate neutropenia but is not as immediately life-threatening as severe thrombocytopenia. A hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL (choice B) would require intervention but is not as urgent as addressing a critically low platelet count. A serum potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L (choice D) is on the lower side of normal but does not pose an immediate risk to the client's safety compared to severe thrombocytopenia.

5. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
• B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
• C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
• D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.

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