Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who had gastric bypass surgery 1 week ago and has signs of early dumping syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Facial flushing
• B. Syncope
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Facial flushing is a common symptom of early dumping syndrome, which occurs when food moves too quickly into the small intestine. This rapid movement triggers the release of vasoactive peptides causing vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. Syncope (choice B) is not a typical finding in early dumping syndrome. Diaphoresis (choice C) and bradycardia (choice D) are also not characteristic symptoms of early dumping syndrome.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate of 110/min
• B. 1+ pitting edema
• C. Blood pressure 138/80 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates decreased kidney perfusion, which is a serious complication of preeclampsia. Reporting this finding is crucial for prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority as fetal heart rate of 110/min, 1+ pitting edema, and blood pressure of 138/80 mm Hg are within normal limits for a client with preeclampsia at 38 weeks of gestation.

3. A client is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypocalcemia?

• A. Constipation
• B. Numbness and tingling of the fingers
• C. Increased thirst
• D. Frequent urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Numbness and tingling of the fingers are classic signs of hypocalcemia, a condition that may result from inadvertent damage to the parathyroid glands during a thyroidectomy. These symptoms occur due to decreased levels of calcium in the bloodstream affecting nerve function. Choices A, C, and D are not typical manifestations of hypocalcemia. Constipation is more associated with hypercalcemia, increased thirst can be seen in diabetes or dehydration, and frequent urination is a symptom more commonly linked to conditions like diabetes or urinary tract issues.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Diarrhea.
• B. Urinary retention.
• C. Hypotension.
• D. Bradycardia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.

5. How should fluid balance be assessed in a patient receiving diuretics?

• A. Monitor daily weight
• B. Monitor intake and output
• C. Check for edema
• D. Monitor blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring daily weight is the most accurate method to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Changes in weight reflect changes in fluid balance, making it a sensitive indicator. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but may not provide a complete picture of overall fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice C) is a late sign of fluid imbalance and may not be sensitive enough to detect subtle changes. Monitoring blood pressure (choice D) is relevant but may not directly reflect fluid balance as it can be influenced by various other factors.

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