Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low urine output of 20 mL/hr, less than the expected 30 mL/hr or more, could indicate renal impairment or inadequate fluid status postoperatively. In this scenario, early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings - heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg - are within normal limits for a client 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair and do not raise immediate concerns.

2. A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a nonstress test. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should fast for 12 hours before the test.
• B. I should expect the test to take about 10 minutes.
• C. I should have a full bladder for this test.
• D. I will need to have my blood glucose checked before the test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nonstress test takes about 10 minutes and evaluates fetal heart rate in response to fetal movement. Choice A is incorrect because fasting is not required for a nonstress test. Choice C is incorrect as a full bladder is not necessary for this test. Choice D is incorrect as blood glucose checking is not typically part of a nonstress test.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.

4. Which assessment finding is most concerning in a patient receiving morphine?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, respiratory depression. When a patient is receiving morphine, respiratory depression is the most concerning side effect because it can lead to serious complications, including respiratory arrest and even death. Monitoring the patient's respiratory status is crucial to ensure early detection of any signs of respiratory depression. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although hypotension, bradycardia, and hypertension can occur as side effects of morphine, they are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression in this context.

5. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Take this medication 1 hour before meals.
• C. Avoid potassium supplements while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience a persistent, dry cough while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.

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