Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low urine output of 20 mL/hr, less than the expected 30 mL/hr or more, could indicate renal impairment or inadequate fluid status postoperatively. In this scenario, early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings - heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg - are within normal limits for a client 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair and do not raise immediate concerns.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hr postpartum and is breastfeeding her newborn. The client asks the nurse to warm up seaweed soup that her partner brought for her. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Does the doctor know you are eating that?
• B. Why are you eating seaweed soup?
• C. Of course, I will heat that up for you.
• D. The hospital food is more nutritious.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Respecting cultural preferences and providing client-centered care promotes trust.

3. Which lab value is critical for patients on warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor platelet count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor INR levels for patients on warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is essential because it helps assess the clotting tendency of the blood and ensures that patients are within the therapeutic range to prevent both blood clots and excessive bleeding. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice B), sodium levels (Choice C), or platelet count (Choice D) is not specifically required for patients on warfarin therapy and does not directly impact the effectiveness or safety of the medication.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Ammonia 75 mcg/dL
• B. Sodium 142 mEq/L
• C. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• D. Bilirubin 2.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated bilirubin level in clients with cirrhosis indicates worsening liver function and potential complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly as it may require immediate medical intervention. Elevated ammonia levels (choice A) are also concerning in cirrhosis, indicating hepatic encephalopathy, but bilirubin levels are more specific to liver function in this context. Choices B and C are within normal ranges and are not typically of immediate concern in cirrhosis.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

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