a nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and note the fhr baseline has been 100min for the past 15 minutes the nurse should identify which
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes the FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. The nurse should identify which of the following conditions as a possible cause of fetal bradycardia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates bradycardia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. This situation requires immediate intervention to address the underlying cause. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever, fetal anemia, and chorioamnionitis may have other effects on the fetus but are not primary causes of bradycardia in this context.

2. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing confusion after surgery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing confusion after surgery because it helps alleviate hypoxia, which may be causing the patient's confusion. Repositioning the patient would not directly address the potential hypoxia issue. Administering IV fluids may be necessary for hydration or other reasons but is not the initial priority in addressing confusion post-surgery. Performing a neurological exam may be important later on to assess the patient's neurological status but should not be the first action taken when confusion is present.

3. A nurse is providing care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a nurse caring for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to bleeding problems. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation, which in turn prevents straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to infection control rather than managing thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is not directly linked to managing thrombocytopenia.

4. A client with a new diagnosis of Graves' disease and a prescription for propylthiouracil (PTU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because propylthiouracil (PTU) can increase the risk of infection. Therefore, the client should be aware that this medication may compromise their immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Reporting any signs of infection promptly to the provider is crucial for timely intervention and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because reporting a sore throat, assuming lifelong medication intake, or experiencing decreased appetite are not directly related to the medication's side effects or risks.

5. What is the best way to monitor fluid balance in a patient receiving diuretics?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Daily weight monitoring is the most accurate way to assess fluid balance in patients receiving diuretics. Monitoring daily weight allows healthcare providers to track changes in fluid status more precisely. While monitoring intake and output (choice B) is essential, it may not provide a comprehensive picture of overall fluid balance. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important but may not directly reflect fluid balance. Checking for edema (choice D) is useful but may not be as sensitive as daily weight monitoring in assessing fluid balance.

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