Nursing Elites

1. In psychoanalytic theory, which psychosexual stage centers on castration anxiety?

• A. Genital
• B. Oral
• C. Anal
• D. Phallic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Castration anxiety is a concept specific to the Phallic stage in psychoanalytic theory, according to Sigmund Freud. During the Phallic stage, children experience the Oedipus complex (boys) and Electra complex (girls), where they develop unconscious desires for the opposite-sex parent and fear castration by the same-sex parent. This anxiety is a crucial aspect of the Phallic stage, making it the correct answer. The other stages (Genital, Oral, and Anal) do not directly involve castration anxiety and focus on different aspects of psychosexual development.

2. What does the diathesis-stress model entail?

• A. The diathesis-stress model suggests that stress alone is sufficient to cause a mental disorder.
• B. The diathesis-stress model involves a combination of genetic vulnerability and environmental stressors.
• C. The diathesis-stress model suggests that genetic factors alone cause mental disorders.
• D. The diathesis-stress model suggests that stressors in the environment do not affect the onset of mental disorders.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The diathesis-stress model proposes that mental disorders develop from a combination of genetic vulnerability (the diathesis) and environmental stressors. Choice A is incorrect because it states that stress alone can cause mental disorders, which is not in line with the model. Choice C is incorrect as it simplifies the model to genetic factors alone causing mental disorders. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests that environmental stressors do not play a role in the onset of mental disorders, which contradicts the essence of the diathesis-stress model.

3. Which term refers to events that typically happen to everyone at certain times of life?

• A. Normative age-graded influence
• B. Social clock
• C. Sensitive period
• D. Normative history-graded influences

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Normative age-graded influence. Normative age-graded influences are events that typically happen to everyone at certain life stages, such as marriage, parenthood, puberty, and menopause. Choice B, 'Social clock,' refers to the culturally preferred timing of social events. Choice C, 'Sensitive period,' represents a time when a particular development occurs most easily. Choice D, 'Normative history-graded influences,' are common to people of a particular generation due to historical circumstances.

4. How can resilience impact the likelihood of developing a mental disorder?

• A. Resilience has no impact on mental health outcomes.
• B. Resilience can help individuals overcome significant stressors.
• C. Resilience is irrelevant to mental health.
• D. Resilience is the sole factor that determines mental health outcomes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Resilience plays a crucial role in mental health outcomes by enabling individuals to navigate and overcome stressors effectively, thus reducing the probability of developing mental disorders. Choice A is incorrect as resilience does have a positive impact on mental health. Choice C is incorrect as resilience is highly relevant to mental health outcomes. Choice D is incorrect because while resilience is important, it is not the only factor influencing mental health.

5. Which of the following explanations for the relationship between SES and abnormal behavior is not supported by the existing data?

• A. Low SES may cause abnormal behavior.
• B. Abnormal behavior is more likely to go untreated in those of low SES.
• C. Recovery from loss of a job may be more difficult for those exhibiting signs of mental illness.
• D. High SES may cause abnormal behavior.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because high SES as a cause for abnormal behavior is not supported by existing data. Abnormal behavior is often associated with factors like stress, trauma, genetics, or environmental influences. High SES is not a known cause of abnormal behavior. Choices A, B, and C are more plausible explanations: Low SES may lead to limited access to mental health care, untreated abnormal behavior due to financial constraints, and difficulties in coping with mental health issues after job loss, respectively.

Similar Questions