Nursing Elites

1. If a patient complains of dizziness, which term below best describes this feeling?

• A. Contraindication
• B. Sign
• C. Objective data
• D. Symptom

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Symptom.' Dizziness is a symptom because it is a subjective experience reported by the patient. A 'contraindication' refers to a specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful. A 'sign' is an objective finding that can be observed or measured. 'Objective data' refers to measurable and observable information about a patient's condition, which is usually obtained through physical examination or diagnostic tests. Therefore, in this case, 'Symptom' is the best term to describe the patient's feeling of dizziness.

2. A patient with a history of venous thromboembolism is prescribed hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What should the nurse discuss with the patient regarding the risks of HRT?

• A. HRT is associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, so the patient should be aware of the signs and symptoms of blood clots.
• B. HRT can decrease the risk of osteoporosis, but the patient should also be aware of the increased risk of venous thromboembolism.
• C. HRT may increase the risk of breast cancer, so the patient should undergo regular breast exams.
• D. HRT can improve mood and energy levels, but it also carries a risk of cardiovascular events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is indeed associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Therefore, patients should be educated about the signs and symptoms of blood clots and advised to seek immediate medical attention if they occur. Choice B is incorrect because although HRT may decrease the risk of osteoporosis, the focus of concern in this case is the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Choice C is incorrect as it mentions the risk of breast cancer, which is not the primary concern when discussing HRT with a patient with a history of venous thromboembolism. Choice D is also incorrect as it mentions cardiovascular events, which are not the main focus of risk associated with HRT in this scenario.

3. When evaluating the success of adding raltegravir to the drug regimen of a 42-year-old female patient with HIV, which laboratory value should the nurse prioritize?

• A. The patient's C-reactive protein levels
• B. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. The patient's viral load
• D. The patient's CD4 count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The patient's viral load. In HIV management, monitoring the viral load is crucial to assess the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy. A decrease in viral load indicates the treatment's success in controlling the HIV infection. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. C-reactive protein levels and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are markers of inflammation and non-specific indicators of infection, not specifically for HIV. CD4 count is important but not as immediate for evaluating the response to the newly added medication compared to monitoring the viral load.

4. Which of the following is NOT an example of clinical manifestations of leukemia and lymphoma?

• A. Fatigue
• B. Increased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infections
• D. Increased energy and strength

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Increased energy and strength. Leukemia and lymphoma typically present with symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, increased risk of bleeding, and increased risk of infections. Patients with these conditions often experience a lack of energy and strength due to the disease's impact on the body. Therefore, increased energy and strength are not typical manifestations of leukemia and lymphoma.

5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

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