ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Quizlet
1. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?
- A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
- B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
- C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
- D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.
2. When teaching a patient about the use of finasteride (Proscar) for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), what should the nurse emphasize about the expected outcomes of this therapy?
- A. Expect improvement in symptoms within a few days.
- B. Improvement in symptoms may take several weeks or months.
- C. Expect immediate improvement in urinary flow.
- D. The medication will cure BPH after treatment is complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The effects of finasteride in treating BPH may take several weeks or months to become noticeable as it works by shrinking the prostate gland over time. Therefore, patients should be informed that improvement in symptoms may not be immediate. Choice A is incorrect because improvement in symptoms is not expected within a few days. Choice C is incorrect as immediate improvement in urinary flow is not typical with finasteride. Choice D is incorrect because finasteride manages BPH symptoms but does not cure the condition.
3. A patient is prescribed testosterone gel for hypogonadism. What important instruction should the nurse provide regarding the application of this medication?
- A. Apply the gel to the chest or upper arms.
- B. Apply the gel to the face and neck.
- C. Apply the gel to the genitals for maximum absorption.
- D. Apply the gel to the scalp and back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply the testosterone gel to the chest or upper arms. This is recommended to minimize the risk of unintentional transfer of the medication to others, especially women and children, through skin contact. Applying the gel to the face, neck, or genitals is not advised as it can lead to unintended exposure to others. Additionally, applying the gel to the scalp or back is not appropriate as these areas are not indicated for absorption of testosterone.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital for pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer bronchodilators as prescribed.
- B. Monitor oxygen saturation levels continuously.
- C. Administer intravenous antibiotics as prescribed.
- D. Provide respiratory therapy treatments as needed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Administering IV antibiotics is crucial for treating pneumonia in a client with COPD. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent complications and improve outcomes. While bronchodilators may help with COPD symptoms, in the case of pneumonia, addressing the infection is the priority. Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation is important, but administering antibiotics to treat the underlying infection takes precedence. Respiratory therapy treatments can be beneficial, but they are not the initial priority when managing pneumonia in a client with COPD.
5. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Profound diaphoresis
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Flu-like symptoms
- D. Cyanosis and pallor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.
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