Nursing Elites

1. Why is it important for a patient to take a new oral contraceptive at the same time each day?

• A. Taking the medication at the same time each day helps maintain stable hormone levels, which is critical for preventing pregnancy.
• B. Taking the medication at the same time each day reduces the risk of breakthrough bleeding.
• C. Taking the medication at the same time each day ensures consistent absorption and effectiveness.
• D. Taking the medication at the same time each day is important, but missing a dose occasionally is not a concern.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking oral contraceptives at the same time each day is crucial for maintaining stable hormone levels, which is essential for the contraceptive's effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Choice B is incorrect because the primary reason for taking the medication consistently is hormone level stability, not specifically to reduce breakthrough bleeding. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on absorption and effectiveness, which are important but do not address the main reason for consistent timing. Choice D is incorrect because missing doses can impact contraceptive efficacy, making consistent timing essential for optimal protection.

2. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What is the most serious adverse effect the nurse should monitor for during this therapy?

• A. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
• B. Increased risk of bone fractures
• C. Increased risk of venous thromboembolism
• D. Increased risk of mood changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular events, such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during this therapy. Choice B, increased risk of bone fractures, is not typically associated with androgen therapy. Choice C, increased risk of venous thromboembolism, is more commonly linked to estrogen therapy rather than androgen therapy. Choice D, increased risk of mood changes, can occur with androgen therapy but is not as serious or life-threatening as cardiovascular events.

3. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?

• A. Coagulative necrosis
• B. Liquefactive necrosis
• C. Caseous necrosis
• D. Autonecrosis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. A homeless man was screened for tuberculosis (TB) during a health consultation at a shelter, and the results indicate latent TB. The community health nurse who is liaising with the providers of the shelter would anticipate what component of this man's plan of care?

• A. The man will undergo conservative treatment for TB using adjuvant medications.
• B. The man will be treated for TB using first-line antitubercular drugs.
• C. The man will be monitored closely to determine if treatment is necessary.
• D. The man will be screened again in 10 to 12 weeks to determine if he has developed active TB.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When a patient is diagnosed with latent TB infection, the standard approach involves treating them with first-line antitubercular drugs to prevent the progression to active TB. Adjuvant medications are not typically used for latent TB. Close monitoring without initiating treatment can lead to the development of active TB, so immediate treatment is crucial. Screening the individual again in 10 to 12 weeks does not address the immediate need for treatment of latent TB, which is essential to prevent the progression of the disease.

5. A client is admitted with a suspected aortic dissection. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer antihypertensive medications as prescribed.
• B. Prepare the client for emergency surgery.
• C. Administer intravenous fluids to maintain blood pressure.
• D. Monitor the client's urine output closely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for emergency surgery. Aortic dissection is a life-threatening emergency that often necessitates immediate surgical intervention to prevent rupture and further complications. Administering antihypertensive medications (choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority over surgical intervention. While maintaining blood pressure with intravenous fluids (choice C) is important, the urgent need for surgery takes precedence. Monitoring urine output (choice D) is essential for assessing renal function but is not the priority in this critical situation.

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