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ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the following exudates is composed of a large accumulation of leukocytes?
- A. Serous
- B. Purulent
- C. Fibrinous
- D. Hemorrhagic
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purulent. Purulent exudates, or pus, consist primarily of leukocytes and dead cells, indicating a bacterial infection. Serous exudates contain a thin, watery fluid with few leukocytes. Fibrinous exudates are rich in fibrin and are commonly seen in severe inflammation. Hemorrhagic exudates contain red blood cells due to blood vessel damage.
2. When a healthcare professional observes muscle stiffening occurring within 6 to 14 hours after death, the healthcare professional should document this finding as _____ present.
- A. Livor mortis
- B. Gangrene
- C. Algor mortis
- D. Rigor mortis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rigor mortis. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of muscles after death, typically beginning within 6 to 14 hours. Livor mortis (choice A) refers to the pooling of blood in the lowest tissues causing discoloration, gangrene (choice B) is the death of body tissue due to lack of blood flow, and algor mortis (choice C) is the cooling of the body after death.
3. A group of prison inmates developed tuberculosis following exposure to an infected inmate. On examination, tissues were soft and granular (like clumped cheese). Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Coagulative necrosis
- B. Liquefactive necrosis
- C. Caseous necrosis
- D. Autonecrosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Caseous necrosis is characteristic of tuberculosis, where the tissue has a soft, cheese-like appearance. Coagulative necrosis involves protein denaturation, liquefactive necrosis is seen in brain infarcts and abscesses, and autonecrosis is not a recognized term in pathology, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
4. What assessment is the nurse performing when a client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides, and then asked to close the eyes while the nurse observes for a full minute?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Weber test
- C. Rinne test
- D. Babinski test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Romberg test. The Romberg test is used to assess balance and proprioception. During the test, the client is asked to stand with feet together, eyes open, and hands by the sides to observe their balance. Then, the client is asked to close their eyes while the nurse continues to observe for a full minute. This test helps in detecting any issues with proprioception and balance, which may be compromised in conditions affecting the nervous system. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the Weber test is used to assess hearing in each ear, the Rinne test is used to compare air and bone conduction of sound, and the Babinski test is used to assess the integrity of the corticospinal tract.
5. What is responsible for initiating clonal selection?
- A. B cells
- B. T cells
- C. Antigens
- D. Lymphocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Antigens are the correct answer as they are the molecules that trigger the immune response by binding to specific B or T cells. This binding activates these cells, leading to their proliferation and differentiation to fight off the antigen. B cells and T cells are the responders to antigens, not the initiators of clonal selection. Lymphocytes is a broad term encompassing both B and T cells, so it is not the specific factor responsible for initiating clonal selection.
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