ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A 45-year-old woman has been prescribed conjugated estrogens (Premarin) for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- B. Avoid smoking while taking this medication.
- C. Increase the intake of high-calcium foods.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid smoking while taking this medication' because patients taking conjugated estrogens should avoid smoking due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events. Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration is a good practice but not specifically related to conjugated estrogens. Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to the medication. Taking the medication at bedtime to prevent insomnia is not a specific teaching point for conjugated estrogens.
2. What is the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function?
- A. The ability to perform complex mathematics
- B. Altered level of consciousness
- C. The lack of cerebrospinal fluid production
- D. Intact cranial nerve functions
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered level of consciousness. Changes in consciousness are the most sensitive indicator of altered brain function as they can signal underlying neurological issues. Option A, the ability to perform complex mathematics, though it involves brain function, is not as sensitive or direct an indicator as altered consciousness. Option C, the lack of cerebrospinal fluid production, is more related to conditions like hydrocephalus rather than a direct indicator of altered brain function. Option D, intact cranial nerve functions, indicate the normal functioning of peripheral nerves and are not as sensitive to changes in brain function as alterations in consciousness.
3. Following a spinal cord injury suffered in a motor vehicle accident, a 22-year-old male has lost fine motor function of his finger and thumb, but is still able to perform gross motor movements of his hand and arm. Which component of his 'white matter' has most likely been damaged?
- A. The inner layer (archilayer)
- B. The middle layer (paleolayer)
- C. The outer layer (neolayer)
- D. The reticular formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The outer layer (neolayer). The white matter of the spinal cord consists of three layers: the outer layer (neolayer), the middle layer (paleolayer), and the inner layer (archilayer). Damage to the outer layer (neolayer) is likely to affect fine motor skills, explaining the loss of fine motor function in the finger and thumb while gross motor movements remain intact. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the specific layer of the white matter that is typically associated with fine motor control.
4. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Right lower quadrant cramping
- B. Severe bloody diarrhea
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Mostly affects the rectum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.
5. An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with a sex hormone deficiency and has begun a course of treatment with testosterone. What change in the boy's health status would necessitate a stop to the course of treatment?
- A. Excessive growth in height
- B. Signs of puberty
- C. Recurrent urinary tract infections
- D. Increased blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In an 8-year-old boy with a sex hormone deficiency being treated with testosterone, the appearance of signs of puberty would necessitate stopping the treatment. Testosterone therapy in this case aims to supplement the deficient sex hormones but should not trigger premature puberty. Excessive growth in height (choice A) is not a typical reason to stop testosterone therapy. Recurrent urinary tract infections (choice C) and increased blood pressure (choice D) are not directly related to testosterone therapy in this context.
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