ATI RN
Pathophysiology Exam 1 Quizlet
1. A 45-year-old woman has been prescribed conjugated estrogens (Premarin) for the treatment of menopausal symptoms. What should the nurse include in the patient teaching?
- A. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- B. Avoid smoking while taking this medication.
- C. Increase the intake of high-calcium foods.
- D. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid smoking while taking this medication' because patients taking conjugated estrogens should avoid smoking due to the increased risk of cardiovascular events. Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration is a good practice but not specifically related to conjugated estrogens. Increasing the intake of high-calcium foods may be beneficial for bone health but is not directly related to the medication. Taking the medication at bedtime to prevent insomnia is not a specific teaching point for conjugated estrogens.
2. In discussing sex hormone production with the patient, the nurse should describe that testosterone is normally secreted in response to
- A. sexual arousal.
- B. stimulation by luteinizing hormone.
- C. ACTH release by the adrenal cortex.
- D. decreased cortisol levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Testosterone production is regulated by the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Choice A, 'sexual arousal,' is incorrect because testosterone secretion is not directly linked to arousal but rather to hormonal stimulation. Choice C, 'ACTH release by the adrenal cortex,' is incorrect as testosterone production is not primarily regulated by adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Choice D, 'decreased cortisol levels,' is also incorrect as cortisol and testosterone are regulated by separate endocrine pathways.
3. A client diagnosed with Bell's palsy is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the condition?
- A. I should avoid moving my face excessively to prevent worsening of symptoms.
- B. This condition usually resolves on its own within a few weeks or months.
- C. Bell's palsy is caused by a stroke and requires immediate medical treatment.
- D. I will need to take antiviral medication for the rest of my life to manage this condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Bell's palsy typically resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Choice A is incorrect because gentle facial exercises are often encouraged to prevent muscle weakness. Choice C is incorrect as Bell's palsy is not caused by a stroke but by inflammation of the facial nerve. Choice D is incorrect as antiviral medication is usually given early in the diagnosis but not required for lifelong management.
4. An influenza outbreak has spread through a long-term care residence, affecting many of the residents with severe malaise, fever, and nausea and vomiting. In an effort to curb the outbreak, the nurse has liaised with a physician to see if residents may be candidates for treatment with what drug?
- A. Saquinavir mesylate
- B. Oseltamivir phosphate
- C. Lamivudine
- D. Ribavirin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oseltamivir phosphate. Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication used to treat influenza infections. It works by inhibiting the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, reducing the spread of the virus in the body. Saquinavir mesylate (choice A) is used in the treatment of HIV, not influenza. Lamivudine (choice C) is also an antiviral medication primarily used in the treatment of HIV and hepatitis B, not influenza. Ribavirin (choice D) is used to treat certain viral infections like hepatitis C, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), and some viral hemorrhagic fevers, but it is not a first-line treatment for influenza.
5. A male patient receiving androgen therapy is concerned about side effects. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?
- A. Increased risk of liver dysfunction
- B. Increased risk of cardiovascular events
- C. Increased risk of prostate cancer
- D. Increased risk of bone fractures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Androgen therapy can lead to an increased risk of cardiovascular events such as heart attack and stroke, especially in older patients. Choice A is incorrect because androgen therapy usually does not significantly increase the risk of liver dysfunction. Choice C is incorrect as androgen therapy does not increase the risk of prostate cancer; in fact, it is sometimes used in the treatment of prostate cancer. Choice D is also incorrect as androgen therapy is more likely to improve bone density and reduce the risk of fractures.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access