a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about preventing long-term complications. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because checking the feet daily for open sores or wounds is crucial in preventing complications like diabetic foot ulcers. While maintaining blood glucose levels within the target range (choice A) is important in managing diabetes, it does not specifically address long-term complications. Consuming foods high in fiber (choice C) is beneficial for glycemic control but does not directly relate to preventing long-term complications. Monitoring blood pressure regularly (choice D) is important in managing diabetes but is not as directly related to preventing long-term complications as checking for foot wounds.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

5. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving digoxin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in a patient receiving digoxin. Hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B), calcium levels (Choice C), and magnesium levels (Choice D) are also important aspects of patient care, but potassium levels are most critical in patients on digoxin therapy.

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