Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should weigh yourself once a week while taking this medication.
• B. You should eat foods rich in potassium while taking this medication.
• C. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• D. You should take this medication with food to avoid stomach upset.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic, should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods to prevent hypokalemia. Option A is incorrect because weight monitoring is crucial for furosemide due to fluid loss. Option C is incorrect as furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent nighttime diuresis. Option D is incorrect because furosemide is best taken on an empty stomach for better absorption.

2. A client has had vomiting and diarrhea for the past 3 days. Which of the following findings indicates the client is experiencing fluid volume deficit?

• A. Jugular vein distention
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Increased respiratory rate
• D. Bounding pulses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate is a sign of fluid volume deficit as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume. Jugular vein distention, bradycardia, and bounding pulses are not typical findings of fluid volume deficit. Jugular vein distention is more commonly associated with fluid volume overload, bradycardia can be a sign of fluid volume excess or other issues, and bounding pulses are not typically seen in fluid volume deficit.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. WBC 4,500/mm3
• B. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL
• C. Platelet count 250,000/mm3
• D. Platelet count 100,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A platelet count of 100,000/mm3 is lower than the normal range, indicating thrombocytopenia, which is concerning in clients receiving chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia can lead to an increased risk of bleeding and bruising. Choices A, B, and C fall within the normal range and would not be a cause for concern in a client receiving chemotherapy.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

5. A client is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. While a heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concern related to morphine administration.

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