how should a nurse prepare a patient for a colonoscopy
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. How should a healthcare professional prepare a patient for a colonoscopy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Giving a bowel prep solution is essential to clean out the colon thoroughly before a colonoscopy. This process is crucial as it helps to achieve a clear view of the colon during the procedure. Providing clear instructions on diet (Choice A) and ensuring the patient has an empty stomach (Choice C) are important steps in the preparation process but may not be sufficient on their own to adequately cleanse the colon. Explaining the procedure in detail (Choice B) is helpful for patient education but does not directly contribute to the physical preparation required for a successful colonoscopy.

2. A client with osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about preventing bone loss. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Walk for 30 minutes 3 times per week.' Walking is a weight-bearing exercise that helps prevent bone loss and improve overall health in clients with osteoporosis. Option A is incorrect because while calcium is essential for bone health, simply taking a supplement is not sufficient for preventing bone loss. Option B is incorrect because weight-bearing exercises are actually beneficial for improving bone density and strength. Option D is incorrect because high-phosphorus foods do not play a significant role in preventing bone loss in osteoporosis.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clozapine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the WBC count. Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a severe decrease in WBC count, which can increase the risk of infection. Monitoring the WBC count is essential to detect this potentially life-threatening condition early. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is not directly related to clozapine use. Platelet count (Choice C) and hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are not typically affected by clozapine and are not the priority for monitoring in this case.

4. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

5. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has a body mass index (BMI) of 24. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the first trimester, it is recommended to increase caloric intake by 300 calories per day to support fetal growth and development. Choice A suggesting an increase of 600 calories is excessive and unnecessary. Choice C advising to maintain prepregnancy caloric intake could lead to inadequate nutrition for the developing fetus. Choice D recommending an increase of 150 calories is insufficient to meet the increased energy demands of pregnancy.

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