ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. How should a healthcare professional prepare a patient for a colonoscopy?
- A. Provide clear instructions on diet
- B. Explain the procedure in detail
- C. Ensure the patient has an empty stomach
- D. Give a bowel prep solution
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Giving a bowel prep solution is essential to clean out the colon thoroughly before a colonoscopy. This process is crucial as it helps to achieve a clear view of the colon during the procedure. Providing clear instructions on diet (Choice A) and ensuring the patient has an empty stomach (Choice C) are important steps in the preparation process but may not be sufficient on their own to adequately cleanse the colon. Explaining the procedure in detail (Choice B) is helpful for patient education but does not directly contribute to the physical preparation required for a successful colonoscopy.
2. You are performing an admission assessment on an older adult patient newly admitted for end-stage liver disease. What principle should guide your assessment of the patient's skin turgor?
- A. Overhydration is common among healthy older adults.
- B. Dehydration causes the skin to appear spongy.
- C. Inelastic skin turgor is a normal part of aging.
- D. Skin turgor cannot be assessed in patients over 70.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Inelastic skin is a normal change of aging. However, this does not mean that skin turgor cannot be assessed in older patients. Dehydration, not overhydration, causes inelastic skin with tenting. Overhydration, not dehydration, causes the skin to appear edematous and spongy. Choice A is incorrect because overhydration is not common among healthy older adults. Choice B is incorrect because dehydration leads to inelastic skin, not sponginess. Choice D is incorrect as skin turgor assessment can be done in patients of any age, including those over 70.
3. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Dry cough
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a stage III pressure ulcer that is healing poorly. The nurse should identify that which of the following vitamin deficiencies increases the client’s risk for delayed wound healing?
- A. Vitamin C
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Vitamin E
- D. Vitamin B6
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Vitamin C deficiency can impair collagen synthesis and delay wound healing, making it important for recovery from pressure ulcers.
5. How do ACE inhibitors work?
- A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
- B. Block stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
- C. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.
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