a nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and requests pain management which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A client in active labor requests pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During active labor, nonpharmacologic comfort measures like placing the client in a warm shower are effective for pain relief. Ondansetron (Choice A) is an antiemetic and not used for pain management during labor. Applying fundal pressure (Choice C) can cause harm and is not recommended due to the risk of uterine rupture. Assisting the client to a supine position (Choice D) is not ideal in labor as it can decrease blood flow to the placenta and is associated with increased maternal complications.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). Monitoring TSH levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of levothyroxine in clients with hypothyroidism. TSH is produced by the pituitary gland and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones. In hypothyroidism, where the thyroid gland is underactive, administering levothyroxine helps to normalize thyroid hormone levels. Monitoring TSH levels allows the healthcare provider to adjust the levothyroxine dosage to ensure that thyroid hormone levels are within the therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D (Calcium, Sodium, and Magnesium) are not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy in hypothyroidism and would not provide relevant information regarding the medication's efficacy.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Productive cough with clear sputum.' Clients with COPD often have a chronic productive cough with thick, often purulent sputum. This sputum can be white, yellow, green, or clear. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxygen saturation may decrease with exertion in COPD due to impaired gas exchange. Pursed-lip breathing is used to control dyspnea, not directly related to increased saturation with exercise. Clubbing of the fingers is typically seen in conditions such as cyanotic heart disease or lung cancer.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly associated with furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes the loss of potassium in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choice C, Hyperkalemia, is the opposite of the expected electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is not a common side effect of furosemide.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

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